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QUESTION 11
Which option describes the possible result of a customer configuring a server pool that contains Cisco UCS B200 M2 and B250 M2 blades?

A.    A service profile cannot migrate automatically from one blade to another blade within the server pool due
to hardware failure.
B.    You must decommission a blade server for the associated service profile to migrate to another blade in the
server pool successfully.
C.    You must uncheck the Restrict Migration box in the service profile to allow service profile migration between
blades in the server pool.
D.    After service profile migration, the server fails in boot from SAN due to differences in PCI device IDs.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which two options occur when a server discovery policy is invoked? (Choose two.)

A.    executes the qualification in the server discovery policy against the server
B.    applies the scrub policy to the server
C.    analyzes the inventory of the server
D.    assigns the server to the selected organization, if configured
E.    creates a service profile for the server with the identity burned into the server at time of manufacture

Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
If a customer wants to maximize the capability of server mobility with the Cisco UCS deployment, what two options are Cisco recommended? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure a server inheritance policy.
B.    Configure a Virtual Media boot.
C.    Configure a hardware-based service profile with burned-in addresses and identities.
D.    Configure boot from SAN.
E.    Configure service profiles with resource pools.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 14
You have a Cisco UCS B200 M2 server configured with 12 4-GB DDR3 1333-MHz dual-voltage memory DIMMs. You learned that the server memory speed is running at 1066 MHz instead. How can you configure the server to run at maximum memory speed?

A.    You cannot configure memory speed of 1333 MHz. The maximum memory speed of a Cisco UCS B200
M2 server with 12 4-GB DIMM is 1066 MHz.
B.    Memory speed of the ESX host is configurable on VMware vCenter.
C.    Create a BIOS policy. In the RAS Memory BIOS settings, select Performance Mode for LV DDR Mode.
D.    On the CIMC of the Cisco UCS B200 M2, select 1333 MHz in the Memory Speed option.

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Your systems engineer has determined all of the firmware versions that the server operating system supports. What steps are taken on Cisco UCS to avoid manual firmware upgrades on the blade servers?

A.    Use Cisco UCS Manager firmware management to upgrade all Cisco UCS blade servers to the same target
firmware versions.
B.    Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware
policies with the service profiles.
C.    Create a BIOS policy and define the host firmware package and management firmware package.
D.    Configure host firmware package and management firmware package policies and associate the firmware
policies with the server pools.

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
When you create a vHBA, what will you achieve by enabling persistent binding?

A.    This feature allows the binding of the SCSI targets to the vHBA, even across reboots.
B.    This feature allows the binding of the same WWPN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
C.    This feature allows the binding of the same WWNN from the pool to the vHBA, even across reboots.
D.    This feature allows the binding of the Fibre Channel uplink to the vHBA, even across reboots.

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two tasks enable jumbo frames on a Cisco UCS system? (Choose two.)

A.    In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.
B.    In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, enable jumbo frames in Fabric A and Fabric B.
C.    In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, configure MTU 9000 in the VLAN.
D.    In the LAN cloud on Cisco UCS Manager, define a QoS system class with MTU 9000.
E.    In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the vNIC.
F.    In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the virtual machine.
G.    In the service profile, configure MTU 9000 in the uplink interfaces.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 18
Which three items represent some of the components to implement Cisco VM-FEX for Cisco Unified Computing System Manager B-Series blades? (Choose three.)

A.    Cisco VSM VM
B.    VEM installed on the VMware vCenter server
C.    VEM in the VMware ESX or ESXi host
D.    Cisco Unified Computing System Manager version 1.2 or higher
E.    VMware vCenter server
F.    Fibre Channel VMFS volume

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 19
Which three items represent some of the features that can be defined in a Cisco Unified Computing System Manager port profile? (Choose three.)

A.    QoS policy
B.    ACL
C.    NetFlow
D.    port security
E.    network control policy
F.    VLAN or VLANs

Answer: AEF

QUESTION 20
Which three items must be configured in the Port Profile Client in Cisco Unified Computing System Manager? (Choose three.)

A.    port profile
B.    DVS
C.    data center
D.    folder
E.    VMware vCenter IP address
F.    VM port group

Answer: BCD

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QUESTION 61
Which protocols can be used to send to Cisco TAC (Technical Assistance Center) the show tech- support command output information about the Cisco UCS domain? (Choose two.)

A.    TFTP
B.    FTP
C.    SCP
D.    Telnet
E.    SecureTelnet

Answer: BC

QUESTION 62
The Cisco UCS Manager displays FSM information for which four of these? (Choose four.)

A.    which FSM task is being executed
B.    the current state of an FSM task
C.    the status of the previous FSM task
D.    any error codes returned while processing
E.    all completed FSM tasks
F.    multiple FSM tasks that completed over multiple tries
G.    multiple FSM tasks that failed

Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 63
How will the Cisco UCS Manager react when all of the FSM tasks fail?

A.    retries for 60 seconds
B.    raises faults and alarms
C.    restarts from the previous known good task
D.    sends an NOC SNMP trap email

Answer: B

QUESTION 64
What should you do when you see faults during the initial setup and discovery process?

A.    Take note and address the faults.
B.    You can safely ignore these faults.
C.    Log them and try to address the first one.
D.    Reboot until the error messages go away.

Answer: B

QUESTION 65
When using the Cisco UCS Manager GUI to troubleshoot a suspected bad memory, which logs contain data that are related to the faulty DIMM?

A.    the System Event log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
B.    the Events log and Faults log that are located under the Admin tab
C.    the System Event log that is located under the Server tab in the Navigation panel and the Faults log
that is located under the Admin tab
D.    the System Event log that is located under the Equipment tab and the Faults log that is located under
the Admin tab

Answer: D

QUESTION 66
Which three are valid tech support bundles to collect in the local management shell? (Choose three.)

A.    UCSM
B.    UCSM-MGMT
C.    Port-Channel
D.    Adapter
E.    SAN
F.    FEX

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 67
The Core File Exporter automatically exports cores to a remote server as they are generated. Which protocol does it use for this action?

A.    FTP
B.    SCP
C.    SFTP
D.    TFTP

Answer: D

QUESTION 68
Which log file in Cisco UCS Manager contains information about which user took a specific action?

A.    user access log
B.    system change log
C.    audit log
D.    access control log

Answer: C

QUESTION 69
Which statement is true about system event logs?

A.    By default, they require manual clearing.
B.    They report operating system crashes and errors.
C.    They are also referred to as system error logs.
D.    They can only be accessed from Cisco UCS Manager.

Answer: A

QUESTION 70
Which two types of ports does end host mode switching have? (Choose two.)

A.    VSS
B.    border
C.    router
D.    server
E.    STP
F.    client

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 11
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?

A.    Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B.    Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C.    Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D.    Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E.    Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F.    Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0 interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running on the router’s fa0/0 interface?

A.    flow-sampler-map flow1
mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
flow-sampler flow1
B.    flow monitor flow1
mode random one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
ip flow monitor flow1
C.    flow-sampler-map flow1
one-out-of 100
interface fas0/0
flow-sampler flow1
D.    ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What is the default log level on the Cisco Web Security Appliance?

A.    Trace
B.    Debug
C.    Informational
D.    Critical

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which command sets the source IP address of the NetFlow exports of a device?

A.    ip source flow-export
B.    ip source netflow-export
C.    ip flow-export source
D.    ip netflow-export source

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which two SNMPv3 features ensure that SNMP packets have been sent securely?” Choose two.

A.    host authorization
B.    authentication
C.    encryption
D.    compression

Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
Which three logging methods are supported by Cisco routers? (Choose three.)

A.    console logging
B.    TACACS+ logging
C.    terminal logging
D.    syslog logging
E.    ACL logging
F.    RADIUS logging

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)

A.    NTP authentication is enabled.
B.    NTP authentication is disabled.
C.    NTP logging is enabled.
D.    NTP logging is disabled.
E.    NTP access is enabled.
F.    NTP access is disabled.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 18
A Cisco ASA is configured for TLS proxy. When should the security appliance force remote IP phones connecting to the phone proxy through the internet to be in secured mode?

A.    When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in non-secure mode
B.    When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in secure mode only
C.    When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not part of a cluster
D.    When the Cisco ASA is configured for IPSec VPN

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which two features are supported when configuring clustering of multiple Cisco ASA appliances? (Choose two.)

A.    NAT
B.    dynamic routing
C.    SSL remote access VPN
D.    IPSec remote access VPN

Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which two device types can Cisco Prime Security Manager manage in Multiple Device mode? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco ESA
B.    Cisco ASA
C.    Cisco WSA
D.    Cisco ASA CX

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. If the given configuration is applied to the object-group vpnservers, during which time period are external users able to connect?

A.    From Friday at 6:00 p.m. until Monday at 8:00 a.m.
B.    From Monday at 8:00 a.m. until Friday at 6:00 p.m.
C.    From Friday at 6:01 p.m. until Monday at 8:01 a.m.
D.    From Monday at 8:01 a.m. until Friday at 5:59 p.m.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which set of commands allows IPX inbound on all interfaces?

A.    ASA1(config)# access-list IPX-Allow ethertype permit ipx
ASA1(config)# access-group IPX-Allow in interface global
B.    ASA1(config)# access-list IPX-Allow ethertype permit ipx
ASA1(config)# access-group IPX-Allow in interface inside
C.    ASA1(config)# access-list IPX-Allow ethertype permit ipx
ASA1(config)# access-group IPX-Allow in interface outside
D.    ASA1(config)# access-list IPX-Allow ethertype permit ipx
ASA1(config)# access-group IPX-Allow out interface global

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which command enables static PAT for TCP port 25?

A.    nat (outside,inside) static 209.165.201.3 209.165.201.226 eq smtp
B.    nat static 209.165.201.3 eq smtp
C.    nat (inside,outside) static 209.165.201.3 service tcp smtp smtp
D.    static (inside,outside) 209.165.201.3 209.165.201.226 netmask 255.255.255.255

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which command is useful when troubleshooting AAA Authentication between a Cisco router and the AAA server?

A.    test aaa-server test cisco cisco123 all new-code
B.    test aaa group7 tacacs+ auth cisco123 new-code
C.    test aaa group tacacs+ cisco cisco123 new-code
D.    test aaa-server tacacs+ group7 cisco cisco123 new-code

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
In a multi-node ISE deployment, backups are not working on the MnT node. Which ISE CLI option would help mitigate this issue?

A.    repository
B.    ftp-url
C.    application-bundle
D.    collector

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which command can check a AAA server authentication for server group Group1, user cisco, and password cisco555 on a Cisco ASA device?

A.    ASA# test aaa-server authentication Group1 username cisco password cisco555
B.    ASA# test aaa-server authentication group Group1 username cisco password cisco555
C.    ASA# aaa-server authorization Group1 username cisco password cisco555
D.    ASA# aaa-server authentication Group1 roger cisco555

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statement about system time and NTP server configuration with Cisco ISE is true?

A.    The system time and NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE.
B.    The system time can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but NTP server settings must be configured
individually on each ISE node.
C.    NTP server settings can be configured centrally on the Cisco ISE, but the system time must be configured
individually on each ISE node.
D.    The system time and NTP server settings must be configured individually on each ISE node.

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Wireless client supplicants attempting to authenticate to a wireless network are generating excessive log messages. Which three WLC authentication settings should be disabled? (Choose three.)

A.    RADIUS Server Timeout
B.    RADIUS Aggressive-Failover
C.    Idle Timer
D.    Session Timeout
E.    Client Exclusion
F.    Roaming

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 19
Which two authentication stores are supported to design a wireless network using PEAP EAP- MSCHAPv2 as the authentication method? (Choose two.)

A.    Microsoft Active Directory
B.    ACS
C.    LDAP
D.    RSA Secure-ID
E.    Certificate Server

Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
What is another term for 802.11i wireless network security?

A.    802.1x
B.    WEP
C.    TKIP
D.    WPA
E.    WPA2

Answer: E

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QUESTION 11
A user is unable to establish an AnyConnect VPN connection to an ASA. When using the Real-Time Log viewer within ASDM to troubleshoot the issue, which two filter options would the administrator choose to show only syslog messages relevant to the VPN connection? (Choose two.)

A.    Client’s public IP address
B.    Client’s operating system
C.    Client’s default gateway IP address
D.    Client’s username
E.    ASA’s public IP address

Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco ASDM option configures forwarding syslog messages to email?

A.    Configuration > Device Management > Logging > E-Mail Setup
B.    Configuration > Device Management > E-Mail Setup > Logging Enable
C.    Select the syslogs to email, click Edit, and select the Forward Messages option.
D.    Select the syslogs to email, click Settings, and specify the Destination Email Address option.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco ASDM option configures WebVPN access on a Cisco ASA?

A.    Configuration > WebVPN > WebVPN Access
B.    Configuration > Remote Access VPN > Clientless SSL VPN Access
C.    Configuration > WebVPN > WebVPN Config
D.    Configuration > VPN > WebVPN Access

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A user with IP address 10.10.10.10 is unable to access a HTTP website at IP address
209.165.200.225 through a Cisco ASA. Which two features and commands will help
troubleshoot the issue? (Choose two.)

A.    Capture user traffic using command capture capin interface inside match ip host
10.10.10.10 any
B.    After verifying that user traffic reaches the firewall using syslogs or captures, use packet tracer command
packet-tracer input inside tcp 10.10.10.10 1234 209.165.200.225 80
C.    Enable logging at level 1 and check the syslogs using commands logging enable, logging buffered 1 and
show logging | include 10.10.10.10
D.    Check if an access-list on the firewall is blocking the user by using command show running-config
access-list | include 10.10.10.10
E.     Use packet tracer command packet-tracer input inside udp 0.10.10.10 1234192.168.1.3 161 to see
what the firewall is doing with the user’s traffic

Answer: AB

QUESTION 15
A Cisco router may have a fan issue that could increase its temperature and trigger a failure. What troubleshooting steps would verify the issue without causing additional risks?

A.    Configure logging using commands “logging on”, “logging buffered 4”, and check for fan failure logs
using “show logging”
B.    Configure logging using commands “logging on”, “logging buffered 6”, and check for fan failure logs
using “show logging”
C.    Configure logging using commands “logging on”, “logging discriminator msglog1 console 7”, and check
for fan failure logs using “show logging”
D.    Configure logging using commands “logging host 10.11.10.11”, “logging trap 2”, and check for fan failure
logs at the syslog server 10.11.10.11

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which of these are the two types of keys used when implementing GET VPN? (Choose two)

A.    key encryption
B.    group encryption
C.    pre-shared key
D.    public key
E.    private key
F.    traffic encryption key

Answer: AF

QUESTION 17
A private wan connection is suspected of intermittently corrupting data. Which technology can a network administrator use to detect and drop the altered data traffic?

A.    AES-128
B.    RSA Certificates
C.    SHA2-HMAC
D.    3DES
E.    Diffie-Helman Key Generation

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A company needs to provide secure access to its remote workforce. The end users use
public kiosk computers and a wide range of devices. They will be accessing only an internal web application. Which VPN solution satisfies these requirements?

A.    Clientless SSLVPN
B.    AnyConnect Client using SSLVPN
C.    AnyConnect Client using IKEv2
D.    FlexVPN Client
E.    Windows built-in PPTP client

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
A network administrator is configuring AES encryption for the ISAKMP policy on an IOS router. Which two configurations are valid? (Choose two.)

A.    crypto isakmp policy 10
encryption aes 254
B.    crypto isakmp policy 10
encryption aes 192
C.    crypto isakmp policy 10
encryption aes 256
D.    crypto isakmp policy 10
encryption aes 196
E.    crypto isakmp policy 10
encryption aes 198
F.    crypto isakmp policy 10
encryption aes 64

Answer: BC

QUESTION 20
Which two qualify as Next Generation Encryption integrity algorithms? (Choose two.)

A.    SHA-512
B.    SHA-256
C.    SHA-192
D.    SHA-380
E.    SHA-192
F.    SHA-196

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 31
Which Cisco monitoring solution displays information and important statistics for the security devices in a network?

A.    Cisco Prime LAN Management
B.    Cisco ASDM Version 5.2
C.    Cisco Threat Defense Solution
D.    Syslog Server
E.    TACACS+

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Which three search parameters are supported by the Email Security Monitor? (Choose three.)

A.    Destination domain
B.    Network owner
C.    MAC address
D.    Policy requirements
E.    Internal sender IP address
F.    Originating domain

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 33
Which Cisco Security IntelliShield Alert Manager Service component mitigates new botnet, phishing, and web-based threats?

A.    the IntelliShield Threat Outbreak Alert
B.    IntelliShield Alert Manager vulnerability alerts
C.    the IntelliShield Alert Manager historical database
D.    the IntelliShield Alert Manager web portal
E.    the IntelliShield Alert Manager back-end intelligence engine

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
A network engineer can assign IPS event action overrides to virtual sensors and configure which three modes? (Choose three.)

A.    Anomaly detection operational mode
B.    Inline TCP session tracking mode
C.    Normalizer mode
D.    Load-balancing mode
E.    Inline and Promiscuous mixed mode
F.    Fail-open and fail-close mode

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 35
What is the correct deployment for an IPS appliance in a network where traffic identified as threat traffic should be blocked and all traffic is blocked if the IPS fails?

A.    Inline; fail open
B.    Inline; fail closed
C.    Promiscuous; fail open
D.    Promiscuous; fail closed

Answer: B

QUESTION 36
Which two practices are recommended for implementing NIPS at enterprise Internet edges? (Choose two.)

A.    Integrate sensors primarily on the more trusted side of the firewall (inside or DMZ interfaces).
B.    Integrate sensors primarily on the less trusted side of the firewall (outside interfaces).
C.    Implement redundant IPS and make data paths symmetrical.
D.    Implement redundant IPS and make data paths asymmetrical.
E.    Use NIPS only for small implementations.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 37
Which set of commands changes the FTP client timeout when the sensor is communicating with an FTP server?

A.    sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service sensor
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
B.    sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings parameter ftp
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
C.    sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service host
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500
D.    sensor# configure terminal
sensor(config)# service network
sensor(config-hos)# network-settings
sensor(config-hos-net)# ftp-timeout 500

Answer: C

QUESTION 38
What are two benefits of using SPAN with promiscuous mode deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    SPAN does not introduce latency to network traffic.
B.    SPAN can perform granular scanning on captures of per-IP-address or per-port monitoring.
C.    Promiscuous Mode can silently block traffic flows on the IDS.
D.    SPAN can analyze network traffic from multiple points.

Answer: AD

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QUESTION 11
Which Cisco feature can be run on a Cisco router that terminates a WAN connection, to gather and provide WAN circuit information that helps switchover to dynamically back up the WAN circuit?

A.    Cisco Express Forwarding
B.    IP SLA
C.    passive interface
D.    traffic shaping

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which protocol is best when there are circuit connections with two different ISPs in a multihoming scenario?

A.    VRRP
B.    BGP
C.    IPsec
D.    SSL

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Private lines make use of which connection type based on cell switching?

A.    ATM
B.    ISP MPLS VPN
C.    VTI
D.    VPLS

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which functionality must be enabled on router A to connect two networks for translating private addresses into “legal” public addresses on a one-for-one basis?

A.    PAT
B.    NAT
C.    VLAN
D.    GARP
E.    PPP

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which technology fulfills these requirements?

– Utilize a connection that must support a range of traffic, voice, video, and data.
– This traffic must also support transmission via a fixed blank 53-byte cell.

A.    PPP
B.    Frame Relay
C.    ATM
D.    MPLS
E.    X.25

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which option is used as a top-of-rack device that is managed by its parent device, providing ease of management?

A.    Cisco Nexus 2000
B.    Cisco Nexus 5000
C.    Cisco Nexus 7000
D.    Cisco Nexus 9000

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which option provides software modularity in Cisco NX-OS software in the data center design?

A.    The ip routing command enables all of the features in the Cisco NX-OS.
B.    All of the features are enabled by default in the Cisco NX-OS.
C.    Individual features must be manually enabled to start the process.
D.    The Cisco NX-OS has a management VRF that is enabled by default.

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
What is an advantage of using the vPC feature in a data center environment?

A.    VSS is a requirement.
B.    Multiple instances of control plane are formed.
C.    The control plane and management plane remain separate.
D.    Cisco FabricPath technology does not have to be configured.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which option is a benefit of the vPC+ feature?

A.    Cisco FabricPath is not required in the network domain.
B.    This feature provides fault domain separation.
C.    Nonfabric devices, such as a server or a classic Ethernet switch, can be connected to two fabric switches that are configured with vPC.
D.    The control plane and management plane are combined into one logical plane.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A network administrator wants to provide high availability in a data center environment by making sure that there is no reconvergence of Layer 2 and Layer 3 protocols when there is a Layer 3 switch failure. Which Cisco Nexus feature fulfills this purpose?

A.    ISSU
B.    VSS
C.    vPC
D.    MEC

Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Which three recommendations must be taken into consideration when an engineer is installing a new Voice WLAN? (Choose three.)

A.    Use the Cisco wireless phone site survey client utility.
B.    Use a separate Cisco Wireless Lan Controller.
C.    Enable load balance on voice WLANs.
D.    Maintain -67dBM as a minimal RSSI.
E.    Set data for 2.4 GHz and voice for 5 GHz using separate SSIDs.
F.    Enable lower data rates for 2.4-GHz data WLAN.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 12
A customer wants to implement a wireless network in a historic location, but is concerned about the structural and aesthetic impact to the facility. Which benefit of using wireless mesh addresses these concerns?

A.    Power is required only at the installation location.
B.    The APs do not have LED lights.
C.    More wireless channels can be supported.
D.    APs do not need network connections.

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which three things do you need to consider prior to performing a wireless site survey? (Choose three.)

A.    The time required to acquire any additional infrastructure components.
B.    The time required to survey each potential AP location.
C.    The time required to assess application server locations at the customer facility.
D.    The type of wireless survey tools required to perform the site survey.
E.    The time required to assess customer WLAN density and throughput requirements.
F.    The time required to utilize the design mode in Cisco WCS to prepare a preliminary WLAN design to reduce on-site survey time.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Which infrastructure issue needs to be verified and potentially resolved before deploying a centralized 802.11n WLAN?

A.    That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to support 802.3af power.
B.    That all the access layer switches that the 802.11n APs will connect to contain 10/100/1000 Ethernet ports.
C.    The location of application and authentication servers.
D.    The proposed location for the WDS server.
E.    The proposed location for the WCS.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A customer has restricted the AP and antenna combinations for a design to be limited to one model integrated antenna AP for carpeted spaces and one model external antenna AP, with high gain antennas for industrial, maintenance, or storage areas. When moving between a carpeted area to an industrial area, the engineer forgets to change survey devices and surveys several APs. Which option is the best to reduce the negative impact of the design?

A.    Deploy the specified access points per area type.
B.    Resurvey and adjust the design.
C.    Increase the Tx power on incorrectly surveyed access points.
D.    Deploy unsurveyed access points to the design.

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which three options are benefits of U-APSD? (Choose three.)

A.    optimized power-save mode periods
B.    increased call capacity
C.    bandwidth reservation
D.    synchronization of the transmission and reception of voice frames
E.    efficient roaming
F.    priority bandwidth and polling

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
Unscheduled automatic power-save delivery (U-APSD) is a feature that has two key benefits:
The primary benefit of U-APSD is that it allows the voice client to synchronize the transmission and reception of voice frames with the AP, thereby allowing the client to go into power-save mode between the transmission/reception of each voice frame tuple. The WLAN client frame transmission in the access categories supporting U-APSD triggers the AP to send any data frames queued for that WLAN client in that AC. A U-APSD client remains listening to the AP until it receives a frame from the AP with an end-of-service period (EOSP) bit set. This tells the client that it can now go back into its power-save mode. This triggering mechanism is considered a more efficient use of client power than the regular listening for beacons method, at a period controlled by the delivery traffic indication map (DTIM) interval, because the latency and jitter requirements of voice are such that a WVoIP client would either not be in power-save mode during a call, resulting in reduced talk times, or would use a short DTIM interval, resulting in reduced standby times. The use of U-APSD allows the use of long DTIM intervals to maximize standby time without sacrificing call quality. The U-APSD feature can be applied individually across access categories, allowing U-APSD can be applied to the voice ACs in the AP, but the other ACs still use the standard power save feature.
The secondary benefit of this feature is increased call capacity. The coupling of transmission buffered data frames from the AP with the triggering data frame from the WLAN client allows the frames from the AP to be sent without the accompanying interframe spacing and random backoff, thereby reducing the contention experience by call.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Mobility/vowlan/41dg/vowlan41dg-book/vowlan_ch2.html#wp1045982

QUESTION 17
An engineer is determining the signal levels for the wireless cells. Which signal-to-noise ratio is an optimal configuration to achieve?

A.    minimum SNR of -33 dBm
B.    minimum SNR of -25 dBm
C.    minimum SNR of 25 dB
D.    minimum SNR of 33 dB

Answer: C
Explanation:
The minimum recommended wireless signal strength for voice applications is -67 dBm and the minimum SNR is 25 dB.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless-controllers/116057-sitesurvey-guidelines-wlan-00.html

QUESTION 18
A hospital environment was designed to guarantee RF coverage at or better than -67 dBm in the 5 GHz spectrum. The customer mandates that RRM be used for DCA and TPC in both bands. After deployment, why do many of the legacy 802.11b/g devices have difficulty maintaining connectivity?

A.    Excessive co-channel interference in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
B.    Excessive overlapping channels in the 2.4 GHz band exists.
C.    TPC drastically reduces Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.
D.    TCP drastically increases Tx power in the 2.4 GHz band.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
An engineer installed a 3702 AP and is getting power from the switch. What is the reason for getting 3×3 MIMO instead of 4×4?

A.    802.1p
B.    802.3af
C.    802.11e
D.    802.3at

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
An engineer is preparing for an indoor wireless LAN survey and is provisioning a survey kit. Which three pieces of equipment should be included? (Choose three.)

A.    external connector access point
B.    integrated antenna access point
C.    coax low-loss cable
D.    battery operated power supply
E.    range finder
F.    Yagi antennas

Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 11
What address do PIM routers listen to in order to automatically discover the best RP for each multicast group?

A.    224.0.0.13
B.    224.0.1.39
C.    224.0.0.14
D.    224.0.1.40

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
An engineer must deploy FlexConnect APs to a site that typically has 300 ms latency to the WLC. Which typical operating mode must the engineer plan on for normal operations?

A.    local authentication, local switching
B.    central authentication, central switching
C.    central authentication, local switching
D.    connected mode

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A network engineer is experiencing issues enabling LAG on the WLC.
Which four characteristics should be validated to ensure LAG configuration? (Choose four.)

A.    All ports participate in the LAG by default when LAG is enabled on the controller, y
B.    Dynamic interfaces and management are moved to port 1
C.    Primary and secondary ports are needed for each interface.
D.    Multiple untagged interfaces to the same port are not allowed.
E.    EtherChannel must be configured for mode “on” on the switch.
F.    Only one functional physical port is needed to continue to pass traffic.
G.     Multiple LAGs are permitted on the controller.
G.     The WLC does not need to be rebooted to enable the LAG configuration.

Answer: ADEF

QUESTION 14
By default, how long does a Mobility Services Engine wait for an echo response from a Wireless LAN Controller before declaring the neighbor dead?

A.    10 Seconds
B.    60 Seconds
C.    15 Seconds
D.    30 Seconds

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
A customer recently implemented WLC wireless multicast. Clients and connecting at the highest mandatory wireless rate of 24 Mbps and are receiving multicast traffic, but WLC cpu utilization and wired side network load has increased substantially.
What three actions should the engineer take next to optimize the configuration? (Choose Three)

A.    verify that Global Multicast mode has been enabled
B.    verify that IGMP snooping is disabled on the wireless controller since the access points are handing IGMP messages from the clients.
C.    make sure the highest mandatory rate is set to 54 Mbps so that the multicast traffic has sufficient bandwidth
D.    verify Multicast Listener Discovery (MLD) v1 snooping has been enabled to keep track of and deliver IPv4 multicast flows
E.    change the wireless controller from Multicast-Unicastmodeto Multicast-Multicast mode and assign a multicast address in the 239.X.X.X/8 subnet
F.    verify that the L3 interfaces are configured for pirn sparse-dense-mode on the VLAN servicing the wireless access points as well as the wireless controller’s management VLAN

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 16
A customer requires that an SSID is broadcasted to specific access points that use certain interfaces. Which feature can be used to achieve this goal?

A.    mobility groups
B.    flex-connect groups
C.    interface groups
D.    AP groups

Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Controllers WLC_1 and WLC_2 are in the same mobility group.
A wireless client that does not have the same VLAN interface roams from WLC_1 to WLC_2.
What happens to the client roaming?

A.    The client context is deleted in controller WLC_1, and a new client context is created in WLC_2 to become the anchor controller
B.    The client context is moved from controller WLC_1 to controller WLC_2. The result is that the WLC_1 client context is deleted and WLC_2 becomes the anchor controller.
C.    The client context is copied from controller WLC_1 to controller WLC_2. The result is that WLC_1 becomes the foreign controller and WLC_2 becomes the anchor controller.
D.    The client context is copied from controller WLC_1 to controller WLC_2. The result is that WLC_1 becomes the anchor controller and WLC_2 becomes the foreign controller.

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
A network engineer observes a spike in controller CPU overhead and overall network utilization after enabling multicast on a controller with 500 APs.
What feature is necessary to correct the issue?

A.    controller IGMP snooping
B.    unicast AP Multicast Mode
C.    broadcast forwarding
D.    multicast AP Multicast Mode

Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two options are limitations of using an AP as a workgroup bridge? (Choose two.)

A.    Only factory-configured MAPs can support WGB mode.
B.    MAPs that are configured in WGB mode do not answer S36 radio measurement requests.
C.    A limited subset of Layer 2 security types are supported for wireless clients of a WGB.
D.    There is a limit of 20 wired client devices.
E.    Multiple VLANs are not supported for wireless clients.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
Which two methods to discover a controller does a MAP attempt when it boots up? (Choose two.)

A.    |f Ethernet and wireless are available, it attempts to discover only via Ethernet.
B.    if Ethernet is disconnected, it attempts to connect wirelessly using AWPP.
C.    if only wireless is available and it is configured as a MAP, it does not attempt to connect to a WLC.
D.    If Ethernet and wireless are available, it uses Ethernet first. If it cannot connect via Ethernet, then it chooses wireless.
E.    |f Ethernet is disconnected, it attempts to connect wirelessly using the configured DHCP option.

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 51
Files stored in the Recycle Bin in its physical location are renamed as Dxy.ext, where, “X” represents the _________.

A.    Drive name
B.    Sequential number
C.    Original file name’s extension
D.    Original file name

Answer: A

QUESTION 52
Wireless access control attacks aim to penetrate a network by evading WLAN access control measures, such as AP MAC filters and Wi-Fi port access controls.
Which of the following wireless access control attacks allows the attacker to set up a rogue access point outside the corporate perimeter, and then lure the employees of the organization to connect to it?

A.    War driving
B.    Rogue access points
C.    MAC spoofing
D.    Client mis-association

Answer: D

QUESTION 53
When collecting electronic evidence at the crime scene, the collection should proceed from the most volatile to the least volatile

A.    True
B.    False

Answer: A

QUESTION 54
Which of the following commands shows you the names of all open shared files on a server and number of file locks on each file?

A.    Net sessions
B.    Net file
C.    Netconfig
D.    Net share

Answer: B

QUESTION 55
Microsoft Security IDs are available in Windows Registry Editor. The path to locate IDs in Windows 7 is:

A.    HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\Currentversion \ProfileList
B.    HKEY_LOCAL_MACHlNE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion \NetworkList
C.    HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentsVersion \setup
D.    HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Schedule

Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Which device in a wireless local area network (WLAN) determines the next network point to which a packet should be forwarded toward its destination?

A.    Wireless router
B.    Wireless modem
C.    Antenna
D.    Mobile station

Answer: A

QUESTION 57
When NTFS Is formatted, the format program assigns the __________ sectors to the boot sectors and to the bootstrap code

A.    First 12
B.    First 16
C.    First 22
D.    First 24

Answer: B

QUESTION 58
The ARP table of a router comes in handy for Investigating network attacks, as the table contains IP addresses associated with the respective MAC addresses.
The ARP table can be accessed using the __________command in Windows 7.

A.    C:\arp -a
B.    C:\arp -d
C.    C:\arp -s
D.    C:\arp -b

Answer: A

QUESTION 59
International Mobile Equipment Identifier (IMEI) is a 15-dlgit number that indicates the manufacturer, model type, and country of approval for GSM devices. The first eight digits of an IMEI number that provide information about the model and origin of the mobile device is also known as:

A.    Type Allocation Code (TAC)
B.    Device Origin Code (DOC)
C.    Manufacturer identification Code (MIC)
D.    Integrated Circuit Code (ICC)

Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Who is responsible for the following tasks?

– Secure the scene and ensure that it is maintained In a secure state until the Forensic Team advises
– Make notes about the scene that will eventually be handed over to the Forensic Team

A.    Non-Laboratory Staff
B.    System administrators
C.    Local managers or other non-forensic staff
D.    Lawyers

Answer: A

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QUESTION 21
A regional bank hires your company to perform a security assessment on their network after a recent data breach. The attacker was able to steal financial data from the bank by compromising only a single server.
Based on this information, what should be one of your key recommendations to the bank?

A.    Place a front-end web server in a demilitarized zone that only handles external web traffic
B.    Require all employees to change their passwords immediately
C.    Move the financial data to another server on the same IP subnet
D.    Issue new certificates to the web servers from the root certificate authority

Answer: A
Explanation:
A DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization’s external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization’s local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DMZ_(computing)

QUESTION 22
Port scanning can be used as part of a technical assessment to determine network vulnerabilities. The TCP XMAS scan is used to identify listening ports on the targeted system.
If a scanned port is open, what happens?

A.    The port will ignore the packets.
B.    The port will send an RST.
C.    The port will send an ACK.
D.    The port will send a SYN.

Answer: A
Explanation:
An attacker uses a TCP XMAS scan to determine if ports are closed on the target machine. This scan type is accomplished by sending TCP segments with the all flags sent in the packet header, generating packets that are illegal based on RFC 793. The RFC 793 expected behavior is that any TCP segment with an out- of-state Flag sent to an open port is discarded, whereas segments with out-of-state flags sent to closed ports should be handled with a RST in response. This behavior should allow an attacker to scan for closed ports by sending certain types of rule-breaking packets (out of sync or disallowed by the TCB) and detect closed ports via RST packets.
https://capec.mitre.org/data/definitions/303.html

QUESTION 23
During a recent security assessment, you discover the organization has one Domain Name Server (DNS) in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) and a second DNS server on the internal network.
What is this type of DNS configuration commonly called?

A.    Split DNS
B.    DNSSEC
C.    DynDNS
D.    DNS Scheme

Answer: A
Explanation:
In a split DNS infrastructure, you create two zones for the same domain, one to be used by the internal network, the other used by the external network. Split DNS directs internal hosts to an internal domain name server for name resolution and external hosts are directed to an external domain name server for name resolution.
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/S/split_DNS.html

QUESTION 24
This tool is an 802.11 WEP and WPA-PSK keys cracking program that can recover keys once enough data packets have been captured. It implements the standard FMS attack along with some optimizations like KoreK attacks, as well as the PTW attack, thus making the attack much faster compared to other WEP cracking tools.
Which of the following tools is being described?

A.    Aircrack-ng
B.    Airguard
C.    WLAN-crack
D.    wificracker

Answer: A
Explanation:
Aircrack-ng is a complete suite of tools to assess WiFi network security.
The default cracking method of Aircrack-ng is PTW, but Aircrack-ng can also use the FMS/KoreK method, which incorporates various statistical attacks to discover the WEP key and uses these in combination with brute forcing.
http://www.aircrack-ng.org/doku.php?id=aircrack-ng

QUESTION 25
The Heartbleed bug was discovered in 2014 and is widely referred to under MITRE’s Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) as CVE-2014-0160. This bug affects the OpenSSL implementation of the transport layer security (TLS) protocols defined in RFC6520.
What type of key does this bug leave exposed to the Internet making exploitation of any compromised system very easy?

A.    Private
B.    Public
C.    Shared
D.    Root

Answer: A
Explanation:
The data obtained by a Heartbleed attack may include unencrypted exchanges between TLS parties likely to be confidential, including any form post data in users’ requests. Moreover, the confidential data exposed could include authentication secrets such as session cookies and passwords, which might allow attackers to impersonate a user of the service.
An attack may also reveal private keys of compromised parties.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heartbleed

QUESTION 26
In 2007, this wireless security algorithm was rendered useless by capturing packets and discovering the passkey in a matter of seconds. This security flaw led to a network invasion of TJ Maxx and data theft through a technique known as wardriving.
Which Algorithm is this referring to?

A.    Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
B.    Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA)
C.    Wi-Fi Protected Access 2 (WPA2)
D.    Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)

Answer: A
Explanation:
WEP is the currently most used protocol for securing 802.11 networks, also called wireless lans or wlans. In 2007, a new attack on WEP, the PTW attack, was discovered, which allows an attacker to recover the secret key in less than 60 seconds in some cases.
Note: Wardriving is the act of searching for Wi-Fi wireless networks by a person in a moving vehicle, using a portable computer, smartphone or personal digital assistant (PDA).
https://events.ccc.de/camp/2007/Fahrplan/events/1943.en.html

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is considered an acceptable option when managing a risk?

A.    Reject the risk.
B.    Deny the risk.
C.    Mitigate the risk.
D.    Initiate the risk.

Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which security control role does encryption meet?

A.    Preventative
B.    Detective
C.    Offensive
D.    Defensive

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which type of access control is used on a router or firewall to limit network activity?

A.    Mandatory
B.    Discretionary
C.    Rule-based
D.    Role-based

Answer: C

QUESTION 30
At a Windows Server command prompt, which command could be used to list the running services?

A.    Sc query type= running
B.    Sc query \\servername
C.    Sc query
D.    Sc config

Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
You have created a network design that has two point-to-point Metro Ethernet circuits extending a single production VLAN between two data centers. Under normal circumstances, one circuit will carry traffic and spanning tree will block the other. If the company wants you to make use of both circuits to carry production traffic, which two technologies and features will you investigate to integrate into your network design? (Choose two.)

A.    EtherChannel
B.    MST
C.    Multichassis EtherChannel
D.    PVST+

Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. Acme Corporation hired you as a network designer to upgrade their network so that it supports IPv4 and IPv6 multicast. Which two protocols are needed on the LAN switch? (Choose two.)

A.    PIM sparse mode
B.    IGMP snooping
C.    PIM snooping
D.    Source Specific Multicast
E.    MLD snooping

Answer: BE

QUESTION 13
Voice traffic between two campus enterprise networks is growing. The network designers decide to add a second 10-Mb Metro Ethernet service parallel to their original 10-Mb service in order to provide more bandwidth and diversity. The QoS profile will be the same on the new 10-Mb service due to the voice stability on the first Metro Ethernet link. When the second link is added to the OSPF domain, which traffic design consideration would have the most impact on the voice traffic when both links are active?

A.    per-destination IP address basis
B.    per-flow basis
C.    per-packet basis
D.    per-source IP address basis

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
You work as a network designer for a company that is replacing their Frame Relay WAN with an MPLS VPN service, where the PE-to-CE routing protocol is BGP. The company has 3000 routes in their distribution routers, and they would like to advertise their access routers through the MPLS network. Their service provider, however, only supports 1000 prefixes per VRF. Which two design solutions can be applied to ensure that your access routers will be able to reach all devices in your network? (Choose two.)

A.    Use prefix lists on your distribution routers to control which routes are sent to the MPLS network.
B.    On your distribution routers, configure null routes and aggregate routes for the prefixes in your
network.
C.    Configure your distribution routers to send a default route to the MPLS network.
D.    Summarize the routes on the MPLS WAN interfaces of your distribution routers.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 15
You are designing a network that will run EIGRP over a Metro Ethernet service that does not employ a link-loss technology. What will be the impact on convergence if there is a break in the end-to-end Layer 2 connectivity within the service provider network?

A.    The routers will immediately lose their adjacencies and converge.
B.    The routing protocol will not converge until the hold timers have expired.
C.    The switch ports connected to the router will go down and the routers will immediately converge.
D.    The VLAN on the switches will go inactive, the ports associated on the switch will go down, and the
routers will immediately converge.

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
A new video multicast application is deployed in the network. The application team wants to use the 239.0.0.1 multicast group to stream the video to users. They want to know if this choice will impact the existing multicast design. What impact will their choice have on the existing multicast design?

A.    Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, a flood of PIM packets that have to be processed
by the CPU and hostswill be sent by the routers in the network.
B.    Because 239.0.0.1 is a private multicast range, the rendezvous point has to send out constant group
updates that will have to be processed by the CPU and hosts.
C.    The multicast application sends too many packets into the network and the network infrastructure
drops packets.
D.    The 239.0.0.1 group address maps to a system MAC address, and all multicast traffic will have to
be sent to the CPU and flooded out all ports.

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. In this design, which technology would provide for the best use of resources to provide end-to-end Layer 2 connectivity?

A.    MSTP
B.    PAgP
C.    Multichassis EtherChannel
D.    LACP

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A customer is using a service provider to provide a WAN backbone for a 30-site network. In establishing the network, the customer must work within these constraints:

– The customer has a self-managed MPLS backbone.
– The VPLS WAN backbone of the service provider does not support PIM snooping.
– Multicast VPN must be used for multicast support inside some VRFs.

What can the customer do so that multicast traffic is NOT flooded to all sites?

A.    Configure static GRE tunnels and run the MPLS and multicast VPN inside these GRE tunnels.
B.    Use Label Switched Multicast for the multicast transport.
C.    Use PIM-SSM as the multicast routing protocol with IETF Rosen Draft multicast VPN.
D.    Configure a static mapping between multicast addresses and MAC addresses.
E.    Use GET VPN to encrypt the multicast packets inside the WAN.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
Which two responses are examples of client error responses in SIP protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    302 Moved Temporarily
B.    404 Not Found
C.    503 Service Unavailable
D.    502 Bad Gateway
E.    604 Does Not Exist Anywhere
F.    408 Request Timeout

Answer: BF
Explanation:
Client Error (400 to 499)–Request contains bad syntax or cannot be fulfilled at this server. This class of 400 to 499 contains only error messages.

QUESTION 12
Which H.245 information is exchanged within H.225 messages in H.323 Fast Connect?

A.    Terminal Capability Set
B.    Open Logical Channel
C.    Master-Slave Determination
D.    Call Setup
E.    Call Progress

Answer: B
Explanation:
With the standard H.245 negotiation, the two endpoints need three round- trips before they agree on the parameters of the audio/video channels (1. master/slave voting, 2. terminal capability set exchange, and finally, 3. opening the logical channels). In certain situations and especially with high-latency network links, this can last too long and users will notice the delay.

QUESTION 13
Which two compression formats for high-definition video have technical content that is identical to H.264? (Choose two.)

A.    MPEG-4 Part 10
B.    MPEG-4 Part 14
C.    MPEG-2 Part 7
D.    AVC
E.    VC3
F.    VP8

Answer: AD
Explanation:
MPEG-4 Part 10, also known as MPEG-4 AVC (Advanced Video Coding), is actually defined in an identical pair of standards maintained by different organizations, together known as the Joint Video Team (JVT). While MPEG-4 Part 10 is a ISO/IEC standard, it was developed in cooperation with the ITU, an organization heavily involved in broadcast television standards. Since the ITU designation for the standard is H.264, you may see MPEG-4 Part 10 video referred to as either AVC or H.264. Both are valid, and refer to the same standard.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on an SCCP IP phone (extension 1001) to call another SCCP IP phone (extension 2003). Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Which user inputs are sent from the calling IP phone to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, in forms of SCCP messages, after the user pressed the Dial softkey? Note that the commas in answer choices below are logical separators, not part of the actual user input or SCCP messages.

A.    A separate SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified ommunications Manager for each of the following
user inputs: 2, 0, 0, 3.
B.    A separate SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for each of the following
user inputs: 2, 0, 1, <<, 0, 3.
C.    A single SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager to report that digits 2003
have been dialed.
D.    A single SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager to report that digits 201<<03
have been dialed.
E.    A separate SCCP message is sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager for each of the following
user inputs: 2, 0, 1, <<, 2, 0, 0, 3.

Answer: C
Explanation:
After the user delete phone stop the digit by digit dialing and send it as a whole setup.

QUESTION 15
How are DTMF digits transported in RFC 2833?

A.    In the RTP stream with the named telephone events payload format.
B.    In the RTP stream with the regular audio payload format.
C.    In SIP NOTIFY messages.
D.    In SIP INFO messages.
E.    In SIP SUBSCRIBE messages.

Answer: A
Explanation:
DTMF digits and named telephone events are carried as part of the audio stream, and MUST use the same sequence number and time-stamp base as the regular audio channel to simplify the generation of audio waveforms at a gateway. The default clock frequency is 8,000 Hz, but the clock frequency can be redefined when assigning the dynamic payload type.

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which DTMF relay method is advertised when the originating SIP gateway sends an INVITE message with a Call-Info header shown?

A.    RFC 2833
B.    SIP INFO
C.    SIP NOTIFY
D.    SIP KPML
E.    In-band audio

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can develop user-specific applications that reside on your network entity and have the ability to subscribe for event services supported by the IMG. If the network entity wants the ability to detect an entered DTMF digit (only telephone event of “###” are currently supported) from the TDM-side of a call to the IP side of a call, the entity can subscribe to the IMG for these events and receive SIP NOTIFY events containing the digit event.

QUESTION 17
What is the maximum length of any numeric geographic area address in ITU recommendation E.164?

A.    15
B.    18
C.    21
D.    22
E.    25

Answer: A
Explanation:
E.164 defines a general format for international telephone numbers. Plan- conforming numbers are limited to a maximum of 15 digits. The presentation of numbers is usually prefixed with the character + (plus sign), indicating that the number includes the international country calling code (country code), and must typically be prefixed when dialing with the appropriate international call prefix, which is a trunk code to reach an international circuit from within the country of call origination.

QUESTION 18
According to ITU-T E.164 recommendations, which two fields in the National Significant Number code may be further subdivided? (Choose two.)

A.    Country Code
B.    National Destination Code
C.    Subscriber Number
D.    Regional Significant Number
E.    Local User Code
F.    National Numbering Plan

Answer: BC
Explanation:
A telephone number can have a maximum of 15 digits .The first part of the telephone number is the country code (one to three digits) .The second part is the national destination code (NDC). The last part is the subscriber number (SN). The NDC and SN together are collectively called the national (significant) number

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QUESTION 11
Which two EtherChannel modes can create an LACP EtherChannel ?

A.    on
B.    active
C.    passive
D.    auto
E.    desirable

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Which command can you enter to disable logging for terminal lines?

A.    no logging trap
B.    no logging monitor
C.    no logging buffer
D.    no logging console
E.    no logging count

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two options are purposes of MSDP SA filtering? (Choose two.)

A.    to allow the filtering of PIM messages between peers
B.    to allow all SA message to be processed by MSDP peers
C.    to improve the scalability of an MSDP multicast environment
D.    to reduce the number of multicast address that are shared to MSDP peers
E.    to allow the filtering of IGMP messages between peers
F.    to reduce the number of multicast address that are distributed to other devices in the same multicast domain

Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
Which options is the default LACP load-balancing algorithm for IP traffic on Layer 3?

A.    the source and destinnation IP port
B.    the destination IP port
C.    the source and destination IP address
D.    the destination Porte
E.    the source IP port

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. Which network script automation option or tool is used in the exhibit?

A.    EEM
B.    Python
C.    Bash script
D.    NETCONF
E.    REST

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which two effects of this configuration are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The priority queue is disabled.
B.    Queue 1 is allocated 4 percent of the available bandwidth and queue 2 is allocated 2 percent of the available bandwidth.
C.    Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 1/3 of the available bandwidth.
D.    Queue 1 is served twice as fast as queue 2.
E.    Queue 1 is a priority queue that is allocated 2/3 of the available bandwidth.
F.    Queue 2 is served twice as fast sa queue 1.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
Which three statements are true about the spanning-tree loop guard feature? (Choose three)

A.    Loop guard affects UplinkFast operation.
B.    Loop guard can be enabled on PortFast ports.
C.    Loop guard operation is not affected by the spanning-tree timers.
D.    Loop guard must be enabled on point-to-point link only.
E.    Loop guard cannot be enabled on a switch that also has root guard enabled.
F.     Loop guard can detect a unidirectional link in the same way as UDLD.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the 192.168.100.0/24 destination network is true?

A.    The Reported Distance for the Successor is 128256.
B.    The metric installed into the route table is 435200.
C.    he metric installed into the route table is 128256.
D.    The Reported Distance for the Feasible Successor is 409600.

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which statement about STP port states is true?

A.    A port in the blocking state remains in that state for 30 seconds before transitioning to the listening state.
B.    Listening and learing are transtory port states that use the forward delay timer.
C.    When a port transitions to the learning state, it can send and receive data frames.
D.    A port in the blocking state learns address and receives BPDUs.

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which two statements are true about an EVPL? (Choose two.)

A.    It has a high degree of transparency.
B.    It does not allow for service multiplexing.
C.    The EVPL service is also referred to as E-line.
D.    It is a point-to-point Ethernet connection between a pair of UNIs.

Answer: CD

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QUESTION 11
Which two flexible service mapping features that are used on the ES40 line card can classify traffic into different service instances, in order to consume fewer VLANs? (Choose two.)

A.    CoS
B.    DSCP
C.    IP precedence
D.    MPLS experimental bit
E.    ToS
F.    EtherType

Answer: AF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/7600/install_config/ES40_config_guide/es40_sw_config/es40_chap7.html#pgfId-1500091

QUESTION 12
Which three statements about bidirectional PIM are true? (Choose three)

A.    Traffic for a bidirectional group flows along the one shared tree and simultaneously utilizes multiple
paths in a redundant network topology.
B.    It does not require any traffic signaling in the protocol
C.    Membership to a bidirectional group is signaled using explicit Join messages.
D.    It maintains source-specific forwarding state.
E.    It reduces memory, bandwidth, and CPU requirements

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 13
A network architect is tasked to design and deploy multicast in a service provider core.
There is a requirement to have two PIM RP routers for PIM-SM distribute mode.
What can the network architect do to satisfy this requirement?

A.    Set two RPs with same priority.
B.    Set two RPs, one with high priority and the other with low priority.
C.    Set one RP as the main RP and another as a backup RP.
D.    Set the RP-BSR method with one high-priority RP and one low-priority RP.

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
In relation to MPLS Multicast VPN, which three statements about multicast distribution (MDT) groups are true? (Choose three)

A.    Default MDT groups are used for PIM control traffic, low-bandwidth sources, and flooding of sparse
mode traffic.
B.    MDTs are built in customer networks
C.    Data MDT groups are used for high-bandwidth sources to reduce replication to uninterested PEs.
D.    MDTs are built in provider networks
E.    The number of MDTs depends on PIM modes of MDT groups.

Answer: CDE
Explanation:
Tree created by the MVPN configuration. The Default-MDT is used for customer Control Plane and low rate Data Plane traffic. It connects all of the PE routers with MVRFs in a particular MD and one will exist in every MD whether there is any active source in the respective customer network.

QUESTION 15
What is the role of Forwarding Equivalence Class (FEC) in MPLS?

A.    FEC determines how to establish an LSP path.
B.    FEC determines how IP packets are forwarded in MPLS LSP.
C.    FEC determines how MPLS labels are stacked in LSP.
D.    FEC determines how a group of IP packets are mapped to an LSP.

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
In optical channel transport unit overhead (OTU OH), what are general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) used for?

A.    for trail trace identification
B.    as the backward defect indicator
C.    to transmit information between OTU termination points
D.    to extend command and management functions over several frames
E.    General communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1/GCC2) do not belong to OTU OH.

Answer: E
Explanation:
OTU overhead:
The OTU overhead consists of three bytes for section monitoring (SM), a two-byte general communications channel (GCC0), and two bytes reserved for future international standardization.

QUESTION 17
Which option describes the incorrect usage of the Label Distribution method?

A.    MP-BGP is used for label distribution for VPN customer routes.
B.    LDP is primarily used in internal networks of MPLS-VPN providers.
C.    MP-BGP is used for label distribution in MPLS Traffic Engineered networks.
D.    Directed LDP is used for label distribution in L2-VPN Attachement Circuits.

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
RIPv2 differs from RIPv1 in which three things? (Choose three).

A.    it uses multicast address 224.0.0.10, instead of broadcast.
B.    it uses multicast address 224.0.0.9, instead of broadcast.
C.    it can use either multicast or broadcast addresses,instead of just broadcast.
D.    it sends incremental updates,instead of periodic updates.
E.    it is classless, instead of classfull
F.    it supports authentication, and RIPv1 does not

Answer: BEF

QUESTION 19
Which option propagates SRLG membership information to the network?

A.    BGP attribute
B.    IGP extension
C.    RSVP extension
D.    LDP extension
E.    PIM extension

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which are the three benefits of using the Yang model? (Choose three.)

A.    Reduce lab footprint
B.    Improve access to resources
C.    Support interoperability that provides a standard way to model management data
D.    Support simplified network management applications
E.    Provide a scale virtual lab environment
F.    Support programmatic interfaces

Answer: CDF
Explanation:
https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc6020#page-11

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QUESTION 11
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each OSPF security feature on the left to its description on the right.

Answer:

QUESTION 12
Which VPN technology is based on GDOI (RFC 3547)?

A.    MPLS Layer 3 VPN
B.    MPLS Layer 2 VPN
C.    GET VPN
D.    IPsec VPN

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which statement about the 3DES algorithm is true?

A.    The 3DES algorithm uses the same key for encryption and decryption,
B.    The 3DES algorithm uses a public-private key pair with a public key for encryption and a private key for decryption.
C.    The 3DES algorithm is a block cipher.
D.    The 3DES algorithm uses a key length of 112 bits.
E.    The 3DES algorithm is faster than DES due to the shorter key length.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which significant change to PCI DSS standards was made in PCI DSS version 3.1?

A.    No version of TLS is now considered to provide strong cryptography.
B.    Storage of sensitive authentication data after authorization is now permitted when proper encryption is applied.
C.    Passwords are now required to be changed at least once every 30 days.
D.    SSL is now considered a weak cryptographic technology.
E.    If systems that are vulnerable to POODLE are deployed in an organization, a patching and audit review process must be implemented.

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Refer to the Exhibit, what is a possible reason for the given error?

A.    One or more require application failed to respond.
B.    The IPS engine is busy building cache files.
C.    The IPS engine I waiting for a CLI session to terminate.
D.    The virtual sensor is still initializing.

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which three statements about the keying methods used by MAC Sec are true (Choose Three)

A.    MKA is implemented as an EAPoL packet exchange
B.    SAP is enabled by default for Cisco TrustSec in manual configuration mode.
C.    SAP is supported on SPAN destination ports
D.    Key management for host-to-switch and switch-to-switch MACSec sessions is provided by MKA
E.    SAP is not supported on switch SVIs .
F.    A valid mode for SAP is NULL

Answer: AEF
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750x_3560x/software/release/15-0_1_se/configuration/guide/3750xcg/swmacsec.pdf
SAP is disabled by default in Cisco TrustSec manual mode

QUESTION 17
Which two statements about Cisco ASA authentication using LDAP are true? (Choose two)

A.    It uses attribute maps to map the AD memberOf attribute to the cisco ASA Group-Poilcy attribute
B.    It uses AD attribute maps to assign users to group policies configured under the WebVPN context
C.    The Cisco ASA can use more than one AD memberOf attribute to match a user to multiple group policies
D.    It can assign a group policy to a user based on access credentials
E.    It can combine AD attributes and LDP attributes to configure group policies on the Cisco ASA
F.    It is a closed standard that manages directory-information services over distributed networks

Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
Drag and Drop Question
Drag each IPS signature engine on the left to its description on the right.

Answer:

Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ips/6-1/configuration/guide/cli/cliguide/cli_signature_engines.html#wp1141808

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QUESTION 11
While troubleshooting a failed central web authentication configuration on cisco WLC, you discover that the Cisco WLC policy manager state is showing RUN For new client and not CENTRAL_WEB_AUTH, what is most likely the issue.?

A.    The WLAN Layer 2 security should be sent to WPA+WPA2
B.    The WLAN NAC state should be set to RADIUS NAC
C.    The web login page under the cisco WLC security should be set to external (redirect to external server)
D.    The WLAN layer 3 security should be set to web page policy with condition web redirect.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Two autonomous Aps are connected to a switch on the same VLAN both APS are configured with the same SSID and WPA2-PSK.
After making configuration changes to one of the APs .spanning tree disabled one of the switch ports into which AP was plugged?
Which two options describe possible reasons that spanning tree disabled a port? (choose Two)

A.    One of the Aps was configured as a universal workgroup bridge.
B.    It is not possible for spanning tree to disable a port. The bridging loop must have been coincidental
C.    Spanning tree was disabled on both Aps
D.    PortFast was enabled on all ports
E.    One of the APs was configured as a standard workgroup bridge.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 13
During the Cisco 5760 WLC high availability active and standby process (elected or re-elected), which factor can determine which Cisco 5760 WLC become active?

A.    The cisco 5760 WLC the highest stack member priority value
B.    the cisco 5760 WLC the highest IP address
C.    the cisco 5760 WLC the lowest stack member priority value.
D.    the cisco 5760 WLC the highest Mac address

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit your colleague a junior network engineer is struggling to enable DHCP option 82 in the layer 3 switch which is in the DMZ for a mobile client under a guest anchor Cisco wireless LAN controller deployment . What is your answer?

A.    DHCP proxy must be enabled for DHCP option 82 to operate correctly.
All Cisco WLCsthat will be in the setup must have the same DHCP proxy setting.
B.    DHCP option 82 must be enabled on the dynamic interface with which theWLANis associated
C.    DHCP option 82 is not supported when it is used with auto-anchor mobility
D.    The mobility tunnel datapath control path or both between the anchor cisco WLC and foreign WLC are down.

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
RX-SOP is configured for SGHz radio with value set as “High Threshold”.
Which two clients will associate to the AP? (Choose Two)

A.    client with RSSI-75 dBm
B.    client with RSSI-79d8m
C.    client with RSSI-77dBm
D.    client with RSSI-73dBm

Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which MSS value is appropriate on a Cisco 5508 WLC in an IPV6-only environment?

A.    1236
B.    2131
C.    1285
D.    1331

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit .according to the debugs and loin the Cisco WLC and Cisco LAP which WLC discovery Algorithem is used by the LAP to join the Cisco WLC?

A.    DHCP server LAP sends a layer 3 CAPWAP discover request to the Cisco WLC that is listed m the DHCP option 43.
B.    configured LAP sends a uncast layer 3 CAPWAP discover request to the Cisco WLC IP address that the LAP has in its NVRAM
C.    Broadcast lap broadcasts a layer 3 CAPWAP discover massage on the local ip subnet
D.    DNS lap resolve the DNS Name CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTEOLLER cisco to the Cisco WLC ip address then it sends a uncast layer 3 CAPWAP discovery request to the Cisco WLC

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which port does cisco JSE use by default to send RADIUS CoA messages to the Cisco WLC?

A.    UDP 3799
B.    UDP 1813
C.    UDP 1700
D.    TCP 1812

Answer: C

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QUESTION 51
During runtime, when a valid SQL Query in a DB Read step returns 0 rows, which branch of the step will be executed?

A.    Timeout
B.    SQL Error
C.    Successful
D.    No Data

Answer: C

QUESTION 52
In the Expression Editor panel of Cisco Unified CCX Script Editor, what are three reasons to use the Java tab? (Choose three.)

A.    to invoke a specified method of a custom Java class
B.    to reference a variable of a custom Java Object
C.    to pass variables between two different workflows
D.    to create an object for the purpose of executing methods on a remote computer
E.    to get a reference to the Contact and Session states
F.    to allow for arguments to be passed to a specified method

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 53
What does it mean for a variable in the Application Editor to be defined as a parameter?

A.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from subflows.
B.    The value for that variable can be supplied via Application Configuration in Application Administration.
C.    The value for that variable is defined by the calling application.
D.    The variable can be used in conditional steps.
E.    The variable can be used to pass data to and from VoiceXML applications.

Answer: B

QUESTION 54
Which three tasks are required to deploy a Cisco Unified CCX application? (Choose three.)

A.    create a trigger
B.    upload script to repository
C.    restart the Cisco Unified CCX Engine
D.    specify the maximum number of sessions
E.    configure default session timeout

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 55
Which option can perform Call Progress Analysis in outbound IVR?

A.    gateway
B.    Unified CM transcoder
C.    Automatic Speech Recognition server
D.    agent (voice)

Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Which deployment option is invalid for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express?

A.    a two-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster
B.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to two Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusters
C.    a one-node Cisco Unified Contact Center Express cluster connected to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router
D.    two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express clusters, each with two nodes, connected to the same Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster

Answer: B

QUESTION 57
Which three Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Application Administration tasks may be performed by a supervisor who does not have administrative privilege? (Choose three.)

A.    Delete a resource group.
B.    Remove a skill from a CSQ.
C.    Enable automatic work on a CSQ.
D.    Modify the skill competence level of an agent.
E.    Create a resource.
F.    Delete a skill.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 58
Which three statements describe the importing of contacts into a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express campaign? (Choose three.)

A.    Phone1 is the only mandatory field.
B.    Up to three custom fields can be added.
C.    List filtering for “Do Not Call” is unsupported.
D.    When records have matching phone numbers, only one record is created.
E.    Imports can be automatically executed on a weekly basis.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 59
In Cisco Unified CCX Administration, what is created on the Communications Manager when you add a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Telephony group?

A.    CTI Ports
B.    CTI Route Point
C.    Cisco Unified CCX Call Control Group
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Control Group

Answer: A

QUESTION 60
Select a statement about the Call Subflow step that is not true.

A.    A subflow can access all variables in the calling script.
B.    When the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the calling flow to the subflow.
C.    After the Call Subflow step executes, you can transfer values of variables from the subflow to the calling flow.
D.    The same subflow can be invoked from different scripts.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
Which Cisco Secure Access solution provides centralized policy management to give administrators more granular control over access authorization?

A.    Cisco Identity Services Engine
B.    Cisco TrustSec
C.    Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for Endpoints
D.    Cisco AnyConnect
E.    Cisco ASA Next-Generation Firewall

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which two features of Cisco AnyConnect contribute to secure remote access? (Choose two.)

A.    guest access management
B.    superior clientless network access
C.    accelerated security options
D.    compliance and tracking
E.    context-aware access
F.    extensive BYOD support
G.    centralized management

Answer: BF

QUESTION 13
Which two add-ons are available for the AnyConnect Premium license? (Choose two.)

A.    mobile license
B.    basic license
C.    management license
D.    essentials license
E.    advanced endpoint assessment
F.    BYOD license

Answer: AE

QUESTION 14
Which Cisco Identity Services Engine feature controls access and policies for campuses and branches, wired and wireless devices, and guests, from a single location?

A.    centralized policy management
B.    compliance
C.    URL filtering
D.    SSL decryption
E.    extensive BYOD support

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two features of Cisco ISE contribute to guest access management? (Choose two.)

A.    employee-sponsored network access
B.    faster device onboarding
C.    guest access and activity tracking
D.    accelerated security options
E.    site-to-site VPNs
F.    clientless network access

Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
What are two reasons why companies need Cisco Unified Access technology? (Choose two.)

A.    Fifty-six percent of employees who leave a company take private information with them.
B.    Competitors are gaining a 33 percent market share.
C.    Eighty-one percent of businesses allow personal devices at work that require access.
D.    Staff is unable to keep up with newer data center technology.
E.    Provisioning time for data centers has decreased from eight weeks to 15 minutes.
F.    Management is expected to decrease IT budgets by 25 percent.
G.    Companies need to secure data with unified access policies and essential controls.
H.    Cloud data storage is 60 percent less cost-efficient than on-premises storage.

Answer: CG

QUESTION 17
Which two business use trends have surfaced in the last five years and require nontraditional security?(Choose two.)

A.    BYOD
B.    Wi-Fi connections
C.    partial URL and application blocking
D.    third-party applications
E.    web and email attacks
F.    a large number of remote employees

Answer: AF

QUESTION 18
Which three options describe the main problems with traditional security solutions? (Choose three.)

A.    fragmented solutions
B.    the lack of management solutions
C.    missing components
D.    solutions being pieced together
E.    the lack of a cloud solution
F.    the lack of a firewall
G.    security gaps

Answer: ADG

QUESTION 19
Which two questions should you ask when assessing an organization’s security needs? (Choose two.)

A.    Are you exploring new cloud business models?
B.    Are you enforcing the same security policies consistently across your organization?
C.    Are you using the latest hardware and software versions for your security devices?
D.    Are you using single-vendor security equipment?
E.    What are the operating hours of your security response team?

Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which application is the most critical one regarding malicious content?

A.    Ping
B.    traceroute
C.    SFTP and SSH
D.    Email

Answer: D

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QUESTION 11
Which Cisco WebEx Center has program and campaign management?

A.    Cisco WebEx Support Center
B.    Cisco WebEx Training Center
C.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
D.    Cisco WebEx Event Center

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When writing new App in Tropo, in what format should the App Scripts be saved?

A.    .js
B.    .json
C.    .mp4
D.    .xml

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?

A.    Global phone books
B.    The ability to register desktop phones
C.    The ability to register video endpoints
D.    SRST redundancy

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
In a Resilient and Scalable Cisco Meeting Servers solution where should TURN Servers be configured?

A.    CMS Core
B.    Telepresence Server
C.    UCM Server
D.    CMS Edge

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which statement is true regarding endpoint registration authentication?

A.    When a Subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint is required to have the correct authentications configured.
B.    Expressways and Endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
C.    Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
D.    SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
What protocol is used by TMS when asystem cannot be contacted usingSNMP?

A.    TIP
B.    HTTPS
C.    H.245
D.    H.239

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statement is true about Microsoft Skype for Business (S4B) interoperability with Cisco Meeting Server?

A.    Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users.
B.    Local Directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA.
C.    Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces.
D.    Calls can not be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App (CMA) users.

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What H.323 functionality exists on the CiscoMeeting Server?

A.    H.323-to-SIP Interworking only
B.    H.323 registration, call control and H.323-to-SIP Interworking
C.    H.323 registration and H.323-to-SIP Interworking, but no call control
D.    H.323 registration and call control only

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which is used in bothCMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions?

A.    Cisco CTS
B.    Cisco Conductor
C.    Cisco Meeting Server
D.    Cisco WebEx Meeting Center

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/assets/global/CZ/events/2015/ciscoconnect/pdf/TECH-COLL-1_conferencing-ivsykora-jmartan.pdf

QUESTION 20
If a userof a SIP endpoint registered to an Expressway configured with only the video.com domain physically dials “6501”, what alias is presented in the SIP Invite message?

A.    6501
B.    6501@<ip address of the endpoint>
C.    6501@<ip address of the Expressway>
D.    6501@video.com

Answer: C

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