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QUESTION 106
Hotspot Question
You have a table named HumanResources.Department that was created with the query shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to query temporal data in the table.

In the table below, identify the Transact-SQL segments that must be used to retrieve the appropriate data. NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.

Answer:

Explanation:
AS OF: Returns a table with a rows containing the values that were actual (current) at the specified point in time in the past.

CONTAINED IN: If you search for non-current row versions only, we recommend you to use CONTAINED IN as it works only with the history table and will yield the best query performance.

Incorrect Answers:
Not ALL: Returns the union of rows that belong to the current and the history table.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/tables/querying-data-in-a-system-versioned-temporal-table

QUESTION 107
You are building a stored procedure that will update data in a table named Table1 by using a complex query as the data source.

You need to ensure that the SELECT statement in the stored procedure meets the following requirements:

– Data being processed must be usable in several statements in the stored procedure.
– Data being processed must contain statistics.

What should you do?

A.    Update Table1 by using a common table expression (CTE).
B.    Insert the data into a temporary table, and then update Table1 from the temporary table.
C.    Place the SELECT statement in a derived table, and then update Table1 by using a JOIN to the derived table.
D.    Insert the data into a table variable, and then update Table1 from the table variable.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Temp Tables…
Are real materialized tables that exist in tempdb
Have dedicated stats generated by the engine
Can be indexed
Can have constraints
Persist for the life of the current CONNECTION
Can be referenced by other queries or subproce
Incorrect Answers:
A: CTEs do not have dedicated stats. They rely on stats on the underlying objects
C: Unlike a derived table, a CTE can be self-referencing and can be referenced multiple times in the same query.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190766(v=sql.105).aspx https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/13112/whats-the-difference-between-a-cte-and-a-temp-table

QUESTION 108
You have a database that includes the tables shown in the exhibit. (Click the exhibit button.)

You need to create a list of all customers and the date that the customer placed their last order. For customers who have not placed orders, you must substitute a zero for the order ID and 01/01/1990 for the date.
Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

A.  
B.    
C.    
D.    

Answer: A
Explanation:
COALESCE evaluates the arguments in order and returns the current value of the first expression that initially does not evaluate to NULL.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/language-elements/coalesce-transact-sql

QUESTION 109
You have a disk-based table that contains 15 columns.

You query the table for the number of new rows created during the current day.

You need to create an index for the query. The solution must generate the smallest possible index.

Which type of index should you create?

A.    clustered
B.    filtered nonclustered with a getdate() predicate in the WHERE statement clause
C.    hash
D.    nonclustered with compression enabled

Answer: B
Explanation:
A filtered index is an optimized nonclustered index especially suited to cover queries that select from a well-defined subset of data. It uses a filter predicate to index a portion of rows in the table. A well-designed filtered index can improve query performance as well as reduce index maintenance and storage costs compared with full-table indexes.
Creating a filtered index can reduce disk storage for nonclustered indexes when a full-table index is not necessary.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/indexes/create-filtered-indexes

QUESTION 110
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a database that contains several connected tables. The tables contain sales data for customers in the United States only.

You have the following partial query for the database. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

You need to complete the query to generate the output shown in the following table.

Which statement clause should you add at line 3?

A.    GROUP BY
B.    MERGE
C.    GROUP BY ROLLUP
D.    LEFT JOIN
E.    GROUP BY CUBE
F.    CROSS JOIN
G.    PIVOT
H.    UNPIVOT

Answer: E

QUESTION 111
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a database that contains several connected tables. The tables contain sales data for customers in the United States only.

You have the following partial query for the database. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

You need to complete the query to generate the output shown in the following table.

Which statement clause should you add at line 3?

A.    GROUP BY
B.    MERGE
C.    GROUP BY ROLLUP
D.    LEFT JOIN
E.    GROUP BY CUBE
F.    CROSS JOIN
G.    PIVOT
H.    UNPIVOT

Answer: C

QUESTION 112
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a database that contains several connected tables. The tables contain sales data for customers in the United States only.

You have the following partial query for the database. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

You need to complete the query to generate the output shown in the following table.

Which statement clause should you add at line 3?

A.    GROUP BY
B.    MERGE
C.    GROUP BY ROLLUP
D.    LEFT JOIN
E.    GROUP BY CUBE
F.    CROSS JOIN
G.    PIVOT
H.    UNPIVOT

Answer: F
Explanation:A cross join that does not have a WHERE clause produces the Cartesian product of the tables involved in the join. The size of a Cartesian product result set is the number of rows in the first table multiplied by the number of rows in the second table.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190690(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 113
You create a table by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You need to view all customer data.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

A.    
B.    
C.    
D.    
E.    
F.    
G.    
H.    

Answer: B
Explanation:
The FOR SYSTEM_TIME ALL clause returns all the row versions from both the Temporal and History table.
References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn935015.aspx

QUESTION 114
SIMULATION

You have a table named Cities that has the following two columns: CityID and CityName. The CityID column uses the int data type, and CityName uses nvarchar(max).

You have a table named RawSurvey. Each row includes an identifier for a question and the number of persons that responded to that question from each of four cities. The table contains the following representative data:

A reporting table named SurveyReport has the following columns: CityID, QuestionID, and RawCount, where RawCount is the value from the RawSurvey table.

You need to write a Transact-SQL query to meet the following requirements:
Retrieve data from the RawSurvey table in the format of the SurveyReport table.
The CityID must contain the CityID of the city that was surveyed.
The order of cities in all SELECT queries must match the order in the RawSurvey table.
The order of cities in all IN statements must match the order in the RawSurvey table.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use one-part names to reference tables and columns, except where not possible.
ALL SELECT statements must specify columns.
Do not use column or table aliases, except those provided.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position.

Answer:

1 SELECT Rawcount
2 from (select cityid,questioned,rawcount) AS t1
3 unpivot
4 (rawcount for questioned in (QuestionID)) AS t2
5 JOIN t2
6. ON t1.CityName = t2.cityName

UNPIVOT must be used to rotate columns of the Rawsurvey table into column values.

References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms177410(v=sql.105).aspx

QUESTION 115
SIMULATION

You create a table named Sales.Categories by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You add the following data to the table.

You need to create a query that uses a common table expression (CTE) to show the parent category of each category. The query must meet the following requirements:
Return all columns from the Categories table in the order shown.
Exclude all categories that do not have a parent category.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Name the expression ParentCategories.
Use PC as the alias for the expression.
Use C as the alias for the Categories table.
Use the AS keyword for all table aliases.
Use individual column names for each column that the query returns.
Do not use a prefix for any column name.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position. You may check syntax as many times as needed.

Answer:

1 WITH ParentCategories pc (CategoryID, Name, PatentCategoryID) AS (SELECT

A. categoryID,c.name,c.parentcategoryid
2 FROM sales.categories c
3 WHERE parentcategoryid is not null
4 )
5 SELECT * FROM parentcategories
Note: On Line 1 replace c with WITH ParentCategories pc (CategoryID, Name, PatentCategoryID) AS Note: The basic syntax structure for a CTE is:
WITH expression_name [ ( column_name [,…n] ) ]
AS
( CTE_query_definition )
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190766(v=sql.105).aspx

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QUESTION 116
SIMULATION

You have a database that includes the following tables. All of the tables are in the Production schema.

You need to create a query that returns a list of product names for all products in the Beverages category.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use the first letter of the table name as the table alias.
Use two-part column names.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.
Do not use implicit joins.
Do not use variables.
Use single quotes to surround literal values.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position. You may check syntax as many times as needed.

Answer:

1 SELECT p.productname
2 FROM Production.categories AS c
3 inner join production.products as p on c.categoryid=p.categoryid 4 WHERE c.categoryname = ‘Beverages’

Note: On line 3 change * to =

QUESTION 117
SIMULATION

You work for an organization that monitors seismic activity around volcanos. You have a table named GroundSensors. The table stored data collected from seismic sensors. It includes the columns describes in the following table:

The database also contains a scalar value function named NearestMountain that accepts a parameter of type geography and returns the name of the mountain that is nearest to the sensor.

You need to create a query that shows the average of the normalized readings from the sensors for each mountain. The query must meet the following requirements:
Return the average normalized readings named AverageReading.
Return the nearest mountain name named Mountain.
Do not return any other columns.
Exclude sensors for which no normalized reading exists.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use one part names to reference tables, columns and functions.
Do not use parentheses unless required.
Define column headings using the AS keyword.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position.

Answer:

1 SELECT avg (normalizedreading) as AverageReading, location as Mountain 2 FROM GroundSensors
3 WHERE normalizedreading is not null

Note: On line 1 change to AverageReading and change to Mountain.

QUESTION 118
SIMULATION

You create a table named Sales.Orders by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You need to write a query that removes orders from the table that have a Status of Canceled.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:
use one-part column names and two-part table names
use single quotes around literal values
do not use functions
do not surround object names with square brackets
do not use variables
do not use aliases for column names and table names

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position.

Answer:

1. DELETE from sales.orders where status=’Canceled’

Note: On line 1 change calceled to Canceled

Example: Using the WHERE clause to delete a set of rows
The following example deletes all rows from the ProductCostHistory table in the AdventureWorks2012 database in which the value in the StandardCost column is more than 1000.00.
DELETE FROM Production.ProductCostHistory
WHERE StandardCost > 1000.00;

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/statements/delete-transact-sql

QUESTION 119
SIMULATION

You have a database that contains the following tables.

You need to create a query that lists the highest-performing salespersons based on the current year-to-date sales period. The query must meet the following requirements:
Return the LastName and SalesYTD for the three salespersons with the highest year-to-date sales values.
Exclude salespersons that have no value for TerritoryID.

Construct the query using the following guidelines:
Use the first letter of a table name as the table alias.
Use two-part column names.
Do not surround object names with square brackets.
Do not use implicit joins.
Use only single quotes for literal text.
Use aliases only if required.

Part of the correct Transact-SQL has been provided in the answer area below. Enter the code in the answer area that resolves the problem and meets the stated goals or requirements. You can add code within the code that has been provided as well as below it.

1 SELECT top 3 lastname,salesYTD
2 FROM Person AS p INNER JOIN SalesPerson AS s
3 ON p.PersonID = s.SalesPersonID
4 WHERE territoryid is null
5 order by salesytd dsec

Use the Check Syntax button to verify your work. Any syntax or spelling errors will be reported by line and character position.

Answer:

1 SELECT top 3 lastname,salesYTD
2 FROM Person AS p INNER JOIN SalesPerson AS s
3 ON p.PersonID = s.SalesPersonID
4 WHERE territoryid is not null
5 order by salesytd desc

Note:
On line 4 add a not before null.
On line 5 change dsec to desc.

QUESTION 120
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply to that question.

You have a database for a banking system. The database has two tables named tblDepositAcct and tblLoanAcct that store deposit and loan accounts, respectively. Both tables contain the following columns:

You need to determine the total number of deposit and loan accounts.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

A.    SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM (SELECT AcctNo
FROM tblDepositAcct
INTERSECT
SELECT AcctNo
FROM tblLoanAcct) R
B.    SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM (SELECT CustNo
FROM tblDepositAcct
UNION
SELECT CustNo
FROM tblLoanAcct) R
C.    SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM (SELECT CustNo
FROMtblDepositAcct
UNION ALL
SELECT CustNo
FROM tblLoanAcct) R
D.    SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT D.CustNo)
FROM tblDepositAcct D, tblLoanAcct L
WHERE D.CustNo = L.CustNo
E.    SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT L.CustNo)
FROM tblDepositAcct D
RIGHT JOIN tblLoanAcct L ON D.CustNo =L.CustNo
WHERE D.CustNo IS NULL
F.    SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM (SELECT CustNo
FROM tblDepositAcct
EXCEPT
SELECT CustNo
FROM tblLoanAcct) R
G.    SELECT COUNT (DISTINCT COALESCE(D.CustNo, L.CustNo))
FROM tblDepositAcct D
FULL JOIN tblLoanAcct L ON D.CustNo =L.CustNo
WHERE D.CustNo IS NULL OR L.CustNo IS NULL
H.    SELECT COUNT(*)
FROM tblDepositAcct D
FULL JOIN tblLoanAcct L ON D.CustNo = L.CustNo

Answer: C
Explanation:
Would list the customers with duplicates, which would equal the number of accounts.
Incorrect Answers:
A: INTERSECT returns distinct rows that are output by both the left and right input queries operator.
B: Would list the customers without duplicates.
D: Number of customers.
F: EXCEPT returns distinct rows from the left input query that aren’t output by the right input query.
References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms180026.aspx

QUESTION 121
Hotspot Question

You need to develop a Transact-SQL statement that meets the following requirements:

– The statement must return a custom error when there are problems updating a table.
– The error number must be the value 50555.
– The error severity level must be 14.
– A Microsoft SQL Server alert must be triggered when the error condition occurs.

Which Transact-SQL segment should you use for each requirement? To answer, select the appropriate Transact-SQL segments in the answer area.

Answer:

Explanation:
RAISERROR generates an error message and initiates error processing for the session. RAISERROR can either reference a user-defined message stored in the sys.messages catalog view or build a message dynamically. The message is returned as a server error message to the calling application or to an associated CATCH block of a TRY…CATCH construct. New applications should use THROW instead.

Note: RAISERROR syntax:
RAISERROR( { msg_id | msg_str | @local_variable }
{ ,severity ,state }
[ ,argument [ ,…n ] ] )
[ WITH option [ ,…n ] ]

The LOG option logs the error in the error log and the application log for the instance of the Microsoft SQL Server Database Engine.

References:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms178592.aspx

QUESTION 122
Hotspot Question

You have two tables as shown in the following image:

You need to analyze the following query. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Explanation:
To compare char(5) and nchar(5) an implicit conversion has to take place.
Explicit conversions use the CAST or CONVERT functions, as in line number 6.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/data-types/data-type-conversion-database-engine#implicit-and-explicit-conversion

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QUESTION 276
What two utilities provide a VMware vSphere 6.x Administrator a detailed look at how ESXi uses resources in real time? (Choose two.)

A.    Esxtop
B.    Vim-cmd
C.    Resxtop
D.    Esxcli

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.monitoring.doc%2FGUID-A31249BF-B5DC-455B-AFC7-7D0BBD6E37B6.html

QUESTION 277
What two files are created when the Take snapshot operation is executed? (Choose two.)

A.    .delta.vmdk
B.    .nvram
C.    .vmsn
D.    .lck

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.vm_admin.doc%2FGUID-38F4D574-ADE7-4B80-AEAB-7EC502A379F4.html

QUESTION 278
Which three object types can be stored in the Content Library? (Choose three.)

A.    vDS backups
B.    VM templates
C.    vAPP templates
D.    ISO files

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
https://virtualizationreview.com/articles/2015/07/02/how-to-use-the-vcenter-6-content-library.aspx

QUESTION 279
A vSphere Administrator sees the alarm:

vSphere HA virtual machine failed to failover

This occurred for a number of virtual machines on a particular ESXi host in a cluster with vSphere High Availability (HA) enabled. The virtual machines guest operating systems never reported a power event.

What happened?

A.    The virtual machines were vMotioned off of the ESXi host.
B.    The ESXi host is still running but has disconnected from the network.
C.    The ESXi host failed and vSphere HA successfully failed over the virtual machines.
D.    The previous virtual machine cloning operations failed to complete.

Answer: C

QUESTION 280
Which three options are available for remediation with Proactive HA? (Choose three.)

A.    Quarantine mode for moderate and Power off for severe failure.
B.    Quarantine mode for all failures.
C.    Power off for all failures.
D.    Quarantine mode for moderate and Maintenance mode for severe failure.
E.    Maintenance mode for all failures.

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-3E3B18CC-8574-46FA-9170-CF549B8E55B8.html

QUESTION 281
Virtual machines do not power on after completing the clone or deploy from template workflow in the vSphere Web Client.

What two solutions will fix this problem? (Choose two.)

A.    Increase the virtual machine memory reservation.
B.    Increase the amount of memory assigned to the virtual machine.
C.    Increase the EVC compatibility mode setting.
D.    Increase the datastore size where the virtual machine swap file exists.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc%2FGUID-2742CE14-20FD-416F-B89C-A156053A973F.html

QUESTION 282
What two scenarios will prevent extending a VMDK that is attached to a powered on VM? (Choose two.)

A.    VMDK has snapshots present.
B.    VMDK is connected using LSI logic SAS controller.
C.    VMDK is connected using IDE controller.
D.    VMDK is running an unsupported Guest OS.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/1004071

QUESTION 283
ESXi supports which three iSCSI adapters? (Choose three.)

A.    Software
B.    Protocol Endpoint
C.    FCoE
D.    Dependent Hardware
E.    Independent Hardware

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/5.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-C476065E-C02F-47FA-A5F7-3B3F2FD40EA8.html

QUESTION 284
What two virtual hardware devices can be added to a powered on VM? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual disk connected using SCSI controller
B.    Virtual disk connected using IDE controller
C.    Network adapter
D.    Serial Port

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp#com.vmware.vsphere.webaccess.doc_41/adding_hardware_to_a_virtual_machine/t_add_a_network_adapter.html

QUESTION 285
Which three options are available when applying a Customization Specification to an existing virtual machine? (Choose three.)

A.    Modify a specification
B.    Select an existing specification
C.    Import a specification
D.    Create a specification from an existing specification
E.    Create a specification

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.vm_admin.doc/GUID-EB5F090E-723C-4470-B640-50B35D1EC016.html

QUESTION 286
A VMware vSphere 6.x Administrator is tasked with configuring vRealize Log Insight.

What three ports can be used for syslog? (Choose three.)

A.    514/UDP
B.    1514/TCP
C.    8443/TCP
D.    514/TCP
E.    123/UDP

Answer: ABD
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/log-insight-43/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.log-insight.administration.doc%2FGUID-848E4804-3837-4D5E-956E-2216B17376AD.html

QUESTION 287
Which key combination will let a vSphere Administrator revert to the previous version or build of ESXi?

A.    Shift+R
B.    Ctrl+R
C.    Shift+V
D.    Ctrl+Z

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/1033604

QUESTION 288
A vSphere Administrator notices that upgrading VMware Tools on a single VM fails. Upon closer inspection, the summary tab shows that the VMware Tools status is unmanaged.

What is true about this virtual machine?

A.    There are not any vSphere users that have permissions for the virtual machine.
B.    The VMware Tools are so old that ESXi fails to upgrade the tools.
C.    The VMware Tools were installed with non-default options chosen.
D.    The VMware tools installed is an Operating System specific Package (OSP).

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.slideshare.net/RamPrasadOhnu/vmware-toolsinstallationconfiguration

QUESTION 289
Which password meets the default password requirements in ESXi 6.x?

A.    Xqavntthi3
B.    xQA!3h
C.    xTaMEhb!
D.    Xqa_hin3

Answer: C

QUESTION 290
Which two statements are true when configuring a virtual flash resources (vFlash)? (Choose two.)

A.    Virtual Machines cannot reside on the virtual flash resource.
B.    Only Shared Storage can be configured as a virtual flash resource.
C.    vSphere DRS does not support vFlash resources.
D.    vFlash resources are managed at the ESXi host level.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 291
When adding a new VLAN to an existing virtual distributed switch, which three steps are necessary? (Choose three.)

A.    Right click the vDS and select Distributed Port Group, then select New Distributed Port Group.
B.    Right click on the data center, select Distributed Switch, select New Distributed Switch.
C.    Specify the VLAN ID and VLAN type.
D.    Provide a name for the Distributed Port Group.
E.    Specify the number of physical uplinks form the vDS to the VLAN.

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 292
What is the maximum supporter number of vCPU per VM in VMware vSphere 6.5?

A.    256
B.    128
C.    32
D.    64

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.vmware.com/pdf/vsphere6/r65/vsphere-65-configuration-maximums.pdf

QUESTION 293
Which is a valid requirement for deploying the vCenter Server Appliance 6.x to a DRS cluster?

A.    One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
B.    At least one host in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode or lockdown mode.
C.    One ESXi host in the cluster must not be in lockdown mode.
D.    All ESXi hosts in the cluster must not be in maintenance mode.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.install.doc/GUID-E278E0F2-8983-4246-9903-50C4022F1273.html

QUESTION 294
An ESXi host has limited network connectivity.

What three troubleshooting steps can a vSphere Administrator take? (Choose three.)

A.    Verify that all NICs are configured to support the promiscuous mode.
B.    Verify that portfast (or equivalent) is enabled on all the physical switch ports that the ESXi host is connected to.
C.    Verify that the speed and duplex of the network links are consistent.
D.    Use ESXCLI to verify that the virtual switch NIC teaming is properly set.
E.    Verify that all NICs connected to the same ToR switch are part of the same LAG.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/1004109

QUESTION 295
What are two uses of the vRealize Log Insight Agents for Windows and Linux? (Choose two.)

A.    Monitor the state of syslog/eventmgr services
B.    Collect events from flat test files
C.    Control the state of the syslog/eventmgr services
D.    Monitor directories with the filesystem

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://www.altaro.com/vmware/how-to-set-up-vrealize-log-insight-agents-on-windows-and-linux/

QUESTION 296
After enabling iSCSI port binding on ESXi hosts, a vSphere Administrator can no longer reach an iSCSI Array Target from the configured software iSCSI initiators. Which can be the root cause for the failure?

A.    All VMkernel ports used for iSCSI connectivity reside in the same broadcast domain and IP subnet.
B.    LACP other link aggregation was used on the ESXi hosts uplinks to connect to the physical switches.
C.    All VMkernel ports used for iSCSI connectivity reside in the same vSwitch.
D.    Array Target iSCSI ports reside in the same broadcast domain and IP subnet as the VMkernel ports.

Answer: B

QUESTION 297
One of your virtual machines (VM) has performance issues and sometimes in unresponsive.

Which VM file must be checked in order to find the root cause?

A.    vpxd.log
B.    ds.log
C.    vminst.log
D.    vmware.log

Answer: C

QUESTION 298
ESXi 6.x can be installed upon which three supported hardware configurations? (Choose three.)

A.    Local disk connected through Serial ATA (SATA)
B.    Intel NX/XD disabled for the CPU in the system BIOS
C.    1 GbE network adapter
D.    2 GB of physical RAM
E.    Intel NX/XD enabled for the CPU in the system BIOS

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.install.doc/GUID-DEB8086A-306B-4239-BF76-E354679202FC.html

QUESTION 299
VM Components Protection (VMCP) can provide automated recovery for which two virtual machine failures? (Choose two.)

A.    All Paths Down
B.    Permanent Device Loss
C.    Firmware failures
D.    Driver Failures

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.avail.doc/GUID-F01F7EB8-FF9D-45E2-A093-5F56A788D027.html

QUESTION 300
Which two choices are valid ways to patch an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A.    Utilizing the esxcli Command Line Interface
B.    Configuring a Host Profile
C.    vRealize Operations Manager
D.    vSphere Update Manager

Answer: AD

QUESTION 301
What are two valid iSCSI discovery methods? (Choose two.)

A.    Assigned Discovery
B.    Automatic Discovery
C.    Static Discovery
D.    LUN Masking
E.    Dynamic Discovery

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-66215AF3-2D81-4D1F-92D4-B9623FC1CB0E.html

QUESTION 302
A vCenter Server displays this error for a single host:

Virtual machine creation may fail because agent is unable to retrieve VM creation options from the host

Which action will allow a vSphere Administrator to resolve the issue?

A.    Log in to the vSphere Web Client, select the ESXi host and manually place it into Quarantine Mode.
B.    Log in to the vCenter Server Appliance Management UI and reboot the VCSA.
C.    Log in to the vSphere Web Client, select the cluster that the ESXi host belongs to and turn off DRS.
D.    Log in to the host DCUI, press F2 and navigate to Troubleshooting Options> Restart management Agents.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/1003490

QUESTION 303
Which option is true during a virtual machine cold migration?

A.    Data is transferred over the vMotion VMKernel interface.
B.    The datastore of the virtual machine cannot be changed.
C.    Migrating a virtual machine from an Intel-based host to a AMD-based host generates an error.
D.    Migrating a 64-bit virtual machine to a 32-bit host generates a warning.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc/GUID-98C18721-A4B0-4BD2-96BF-1BBC29391B3E.html

QUESTION 304
A vSphere Administrator notices that one of the virtual machines has been configured for VMDirectPath I/ O, and a physical NIC has been assigned to the VM.

What feature is not available to this VM?

A.    Storage DRS
B.    VMware Tools upgrades
C.    vMotion
D.    Virtual Machine Compatibility version upgrades

Answer: C

QUESTION 305
A VMware vSphere 6.x Administrator has been tasked with enabling the Integrated Load Balancer for the new vRealize Log Insight cluster.

What three options are required before the Integrated Load Balancer can be used? (Choose three.)

A.    The time on the vRealize Log Insight virtual appliance must be synchronized with an NTP server.
B.    All vRealize Log Insight nodes are configured as the same size.
C.    The vRealize Log Insight master and work nodes must have CA signed certificates.
D.    Verify that all vRealize Log Insight nodes and the specified Integrated Load Balancer IP address are on the same network.
E.    The vRealize Log Insight master and worker nodes must have the same certificates.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/log-insight-33/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.log-insight.administration.doc%2FGUID-72CB469A-F276-438D-BC93-77853E2CC0B9.html

QUESTION 306
A vSphere Administrator attempts to remove a host from a vSphere distributed switch, and fails. There is a notification that resources are still in use.

What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)

A.    There are virtual machine network adapters connected to the distributed switch.
B.    There are VMkernel adapters on the distributed switch that are in use.
C.    The administrator does not have sufficient rights to remove the host from the distributed switch.
D.    The ESXi host has a virtual machine with over 256 GB RAM assigned.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.0/com.vmware.vsphere.troubleshooting.doc/GUID-038AC93F-D710-48ED-8E3B-258A23FB2930.html

QUESTION 307
A vSphere Administrator wants to migrate a virtual machine from a host with an AMD Opteron CPU to an intel Xeon CPU.

Which method should be used?

A.    Storage vMotion
B.    vMotion
C.    Cold Migration
D.    Hot Migration

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/s/article/1005764#Does%20EVC%20allow%20AMD%20and%20Intel%20CPUs%20to%20be%20vMotion%20compatible

QUESTION 308
A vSphere Administrator has stated that currently Private VLAN is utilized to prevent cross-talk on the dedicated backup network.

What two actions are required to implement Private VLAN in VMware vSphere? (Choose two.)

A.    Configure Private VLAN at the dvPort Group.
B.    Upgrade to VMware vSphere Enterprise Plus.
C.    Enable Promiscuous Mode.
D.    Configure Private VLAN at the dvSwitch level.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 309
What are two valid states for Compliance Status in VM Storage Policy? (Choose two.)

A.    Compliant
B.    Orphaned
C.    Invalid
D.    Out of Date

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.vmware.com/en/VMware-vSphere/6.5/com.vmware.vsphere.storage.doc/GUID-133B65D0-CE10-45E7-BFA5-74CAD19E0DFD.html

QUESTION 310
A VMware vSphere 6.x Administrator is looking at the following output from esxtop on an ESXi host:

What does DAVG/cmd represent?

A.    Average device latency per command in milliseconds
B.    Average ESXi VMkernel latency per command in milliseconds
C.    Average queue latency per command in milliseconds
D.    Average guest operating system latency per command in milliseconds.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
You are designing a network that requires a routing protocol that will use minimal network bandwidth. Which would satisfy this requirement?

A.    RIPv2
B.    RIPng
C.    OSPF
D.    ARP
E.    EGP

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which two devices would you place in your DMZ to ensure enterprise edge security? (Choose two.)

A.    IPS
B.    NAC
C.    ASA
D.    ACS
E.    WCS

Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Which type of area should you use in an enterprise OSPF deployment if you want to prevent propagation of type 5 LSAs but still allow the redistribution of external routes?

A.    stub
B.    totally stubby
C.    backbone
D.    NSSA
E.    virtual link

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which mode is used to exclusively look for unauthorized access points?

A.    monitor mode
B.    sniffer mode
C.    rogue detector mode
D.    local mode

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
To provide Layer 2 connectivity between the primary and remote data centers, given that the two data centers are using Layer 3 routed DCIs, which NX-OS technology can be used to facilitate this requirement?

A.    VRF
B.    OTV
C.    MPLS
D.    SPT
E.    vPC

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What is the acceptable amount of one-way network delay for voice and video applications?

A.    300 bytes
B.    1 sec
C.    150 ms
D.    500 ms

Answer: C

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the network is route summarization recommended?

A.    data link layer
B.    core layer
C.    distribution layer
D.    access layer

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices?

A.    DSL
B.    DWDM
C.    ISDN
D.    Metro Ethernet

Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which Cisco device has the sole function at looking at threat detection and mitigation at the Enterprise edge?

A.    Cisco IOS router
B.    Cisco ASA
C.    Cisco Catalyst FWSM
D.    Cisco IPS

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
If a teleworker is required to access the branch office via a secure IPSEC VPN connection, which technology is recommended to provide the underlying transport?

A.    ISDN
B.    Metro Ethernet
C.    Frame Relay
D.    ADSL
E.    ATM

Answer: D

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QUESTION 11
A customer cannot access the GUI on the Cisco 5508 Wireless Controller from the management interface due to network failure. Which interface can the customer use to access the WLC GUI until the network issues are resolved?

A.    virtual
B.    dynamic
C.    console port
D.    service port

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which interface is used to connect the foreign and anchor controllers?

A.    management
B.    service
C.    virtual
D.    dynamic

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring a SSID to utilize the management interface on the WLC. The management interface is configured with an untagged VLAN in the wireless controller interface settings. The controller is connected to a neighboring switch via the interface shown in the diagram.

Which VLAN will traffic coming from the newly created SSID use to traverse the wired network?

A.    1
B.    20
C.    44
D.    50

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
A customer has a corporate SSID that is configured to authenticate against an ACS server to validate client credentials on the corporate SSID. The customer has a firewall logically positioned on the network between the WLC and the ACS server in the network architecture. Which port must the firewall allow to ensure that authentication can occur?

A.    43
B.    1812
C.    5146
D.    8143

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
During an upgrade, the wireless infrastructure has seen a few access points join and then drop off the network. After further investigation, it appears the access points may have an IOS code version that is causing issues. Where in the controller is this information found?

A.    GUI > Wireless > Access Point > General
B.    CLI > show ap image all
C.    GUI > Monitor > Software Version
D.    CLI > show sysinfo

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Microsoft Active Directory integrated machines are not authenticating to the internal WLAN.
The WLAN settings are WPA2-AES-802.1x and are authenticating to a Cisco Identity Services Engine server. You investigate and note that non-domain authenticated machines are properly authenticating to the WLAN using their Active Directory credentials.
Why would this problem occur?

A.    The WLAN is configured improperly in group policy.
B.    The ACS server is not joined to the domain, causing authentications to fail.
C.    The domain machines are configured to disable the wireless adapter.
D.    The non-domain machines are using local accounts that are not authenticated through the domain.

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Mac OS X machines are having issues accessing the wireless network. While working with TAC, the administrator is asked to find the Mac laptop’s wireless adapter model and driver.
Where should the administrator look to find this information?

A.    About This Mac > System Report
B.    Control Panel > System
C.    System Preferences > Network > Wi-Fi Adapter > Advanced
D.    Control Panel > Networking > Adapters > Properties

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
An engineer is trying to determine from the controller CLI whether or not Telnet is enabled on the wireless controller. Which command can be entered to display this information?

A.    show network summary
B.    show aaa auth
C.    show radius summary
D.    show ldap statistics

Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. A customer is determining whether a Windows 7 laptop is operating on the correct IEEE 802.11 standard. Which standard is being used by the laptop in the exhibit?

A.    802.11b
B.    802.11g
C.    802.11n
D.    802.11p

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
An engineer is trying to identify if radar has impacted the wireless network at a customer site. When using the controller GUI, which dashboard in the Monitor section presents this information?

A.    802.11a/n – Air Quality Reports
B.    Clean Air – Worst Air Quality Report
C.    802.11b/g/n – Interfering Devices
D.    Statistics – Mobility Statistics

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco Presence deployment? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco Unified Presence Server
B.    Cisco Unity Connection
C.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D.    Active Directory
E.    Cisco Unified Border Element
F.    Cisco Expressway

Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the call is failing.
What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)

A.    dial-peer voice 910 pots
B.    dial-peer voice 9 pots
C.    dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D.    destination pattern is incorrect
E.    prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F.    the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G.    the port number is missing in the dial-peer

Answer: BF

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing.
From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?

A.    The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B.    the digit string prefix is missing
C.    The destination pattern is incorrect
D.    digit stripping needs to be performed

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)

A.    Round-trip time
B.    QoS markings
C.    Bandwidth
D.    Ethernet
E.    Fibre
F.    Token ring

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time.
Which option should be used?

A.    Bulk Administration Tool
B.    Product Upgrade Tool
C.    Command Lookup Tool
D.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E.    Cisco Upload Tool

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
International calls are also failing.
Using the router configuration supplied, why are international calls failing?

A.    Prefix should be 00
B.    The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
C.    The port should be 0/0/0:12
D.    The destination pattern is missing a “0”

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
Calls to National numbers are failing.
Using the Branch router configuration, correctly determine why these calls are not successful

A.    The port assignment should be 0/0/0:12
B.    The destination pattern should be 90[1-9]T
C.    The character “T” cannot be used in a Pots dial pattern
D.    The digit prefix should be “00”

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number.
Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?

A.    Line Text Label
B.    Alerting Name
C.    External Phone Number Mask
D.    Caller Name
E.    Description

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail.
The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature.
Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?

A.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check
box
B.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D.    Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check
box

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber.
Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?

A.    Show Connection Status
B.    Report A Problem
C.    Advanced Settings
D.    About Jabber
E.    Reset Jabber

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A Unified Communications engineer wants to configure a Cisco TelePresence SX endpoint using static IP addressing to use a different TFTP server.
Which path will allow the engineer to complete this configuration?

A.    Network Services > Network 1 > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
B.    Network > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
C.    Network Services > TFTP > DHCP RequestTFTPServerAddress > Off
D.    Configuration > System Configuration > Provisioning > Set the External Manager Address

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two protocols can be used with the Cisco TelePresence Content Server to allow users to share content from their laptops? (Choose two.)

A.    BFCP
B.    H.239
C.    PCoIP
D.    Switched Presentation
E.    SCCP
F.    RDP

Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)

A.    auto-attendant
B.    ClearPath
C.    Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers
D.    Cascading
E.    Active presence for all devices
F.    Support for Conductor
G.    Native scheduling capabilities

Answer: BDEF

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after the respective layouts and views are received by the monitors?

A.    Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B.    Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C.    Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D.    Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server

Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of these involves combining visual elements from separate sources into a single image?

A.    interlacing
B.    compositing
C.    video conferencing
D.    interleaving

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which two of these are considered to be provisioning and scheduling management tools in a Cisco TelePresence environment? (Choose two.)

A.    Cisco TelePresence Manager
B.    Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C.    Cisco TelePresence Management Suite
D.    Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit
E.    Cisco Video Surveillance Management Server

Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. You have just finished installing a 65-inch dual profile system in a multipurpose room. After powering up the entire system, only one display is used.
Using the information in the exhibit, why is the second display not displaying anything from the system?

A.    The Cisco TelePresence profile systems do not support dual display.
B.    The display is not powered on.
C.    The dual display option key has not been input into the codec.
D.    The codec has the appropriate option keys installed, so either the display is not cabled
correctly, the codec is configured incorrectly, or there is no input being sent to the display.

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Threat monitoring in physical access security can be based upon which three of these? (Choose three.)

A.    doors
B.    badges
C.    age
D.    weather
E.    height
F.    fingerprints

Answer: ABF

QUESTION 9
When connecting to a pan-tilt-zoom camera to a C-Series codec, what type of cable must be used for camera control?

A.    an Ethernet crossover cable (RJ45-to-RJ45)
B.    an Ethernet cable (RJ45-to-RJ45)
C.    a serial cable (DB25-to-DB9)
D.    a VISCA cable (DB9-to-RJ45)

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true about the Cisco TelePresence System 500-32 system regarding the HVAC needs for the room where it is installed?

A.    The system does not require any additional requirements above the normal HVAC
requirements for the room.
B.    You must supply additional cooling requirements for the room.
C.    You must supply a room that has energy-efficient lighting to reduce the temperature of the
room.
D.    The temperature of the room will be 10 to 20 degrees warmer than the rest of the building.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
What features can protect the data plane? (Choose three.)

A.    policing
B.    ACLs
C.    IPS
D.    antispoofing
E.    QoS
F.    DHCP-snooping

Answer: BDF
Explanation:
Data Plane Security
Data plane security can be implemented using the following features:
Access control lists
Access control lists (ACLs) perform packet filtering to control which packets move through the network and where.
Antispoofing
ACLs can be used as an antispoofing mechanism that discards traffic that has an invalid source address.
Layer 2 security features
Cisco Catalyst switches have integrated features to help secure the Layer 2 infrastructure.
ACLs
ACLs are used to secure the data plane in a variety of ways, including the following:
Block unwanted traffic or users
ACLs can filter incoming or outgoing packets on an interface, controlling access based on source addresses, destination addresses, or user authentication.
Reduce the chance of DoS attacks
ACLs can be used to specify whether traffic from hosts, networks, or users can access the network. The TCP intercept feature can also be configured to prevent servers from being flooded with requests for a connection.
Mitigate spoofing attacks
ACLs enable security practitioners to implement recommended practices to mitigate spoofing attacks.
Provide bandwidth control
ACLs on a slow link can prevent excess traffic.
Classify traffic to protect other planes
ACLs can be applied on vty lines (management plane).
ACLs can control routing updates being sent, received, or redistributed (control plane).
Antispoofing
Implementing the IETF best current practice 38 (BCP38) and RFC 2827 ingress traffic filtering renders the use of invalid source IP addresses ineffective, forcing attacks to be initiated from valid, reachable IP addresses which could be traced to the originator of an attack.
Features such as Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding (uRPF) can be used to complement the antispoofing strategy.
Layer 2 Data Plane Protection
The following are Layer 2 security tools integrated into the Cisco Catalyst switches:
Port security
Prevents MAC address spoofing and MAC address flooding attacks DHCP snooping
Prevents client attacks on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server and switch Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI)
Adds security to ARP by using the DHCP snooping table to minimize the impact of ARP poisoning and spoofing attacks
IP source guard
Prevents IP spoofing addresses by using the DHCP snooping table

QUESTION 12
How many crypto map sets can you apply to a router interface?

A.    3
B.    2
C.    4
D.    1

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the transition order of STP states on a Layer 2 switch interface?

A.    listening, learning, blocking, forwarding, disabled
B.    listening, blocking, learning, forwarding, disabled
C.    blocking, listening, learning, forwarding, disabled
D.    forwarding, listening, learning, blocking, disabled

Answer: C
Explanation:
The ports on a switch with enabled Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) are in one of the following five port states.
Blocking
Listening
Learning
Forwarding
Disabled
A switch does not enter any of these port states immediately except the blocking state. When the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is enabled, every switch in the network starts in the blocking state and later changes to the listening and learning states.
Blocking State
The Switch Ports will go into a blocking state at the time of election process, when a switch receives a BPDU on a port that indicates a better path to the Root Switch (Root Bridge), and if a port is not a Root Port or a Designated Port.
A port in the blocking state does not participate in frame forwarding and also discards frames received from the attached network segment. During blocking state, the port is only listening to and processing BPDUs on its interfaces. After 20 seconds, the switch port changes from the blocking state to the listening state.
Listening State
After blocking state, a Root Port or a Designated Port will move to a listening state. All other ports will remain in a blocked state. During the listening state the port discards frames received from the attached network segment and it also discards frames switched from another port for forwarding. At this state, the port receives BPDUs from the network segment and directs them to the switch system module for processing. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the listening state to the learning state.
Learning State
A port changes to learning state after listening state. During the learning state, the port is listening for and processing BPDUs . In the listening state, the port begins to process user frames and start updating the MAC address table. But the user frames are not forwarded to the destination. After 15 seconds, the switch port moves from the learning state to the forwarding state.
Forwarding State
A port in the forwarding state forwards frames across the attached network segment. In a forwarding state, the port will process BPDUs , update its MAC Address table with frames that it receives, and forward user traffic through the port. Forwarding State is the normal state. Data and configuration messages are passed through the port, when it is in forwarding state.
Disabled State
A port in the disabled state does not participate in frame forwarding or the operation of STP because a port in the disabled state is considered non-operational.

QUESTION 14
Which sensor mode can deny attackers inline?

A.    IPS
B.    fail-close
C.    IDS
D.    fail-open

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which options are filtering options used to display SDEE message types?

A.    stop
B.    none
C.    error
D.    all

Answer: CD

QUESTION 16
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?

A.    Minimizing risk
B.    Minimizing total cost of ownership
C.    Minimizing liability
D.    Maximizing compliance

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which wildcard mask is associated with a subnet mask of /27?

A.    0.0.0.31
B.    0.0.0.27
C.    0.0.0.224
D.    0.0.0.255

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which statements about reflexive access lists are true?

A.    Reflexive access lists create a permanent ACE
B.    Reflexive access lists approximate session filtering using the established keyword
C.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to standard named IP ACLs
D.    Reflexive access lists support UDP sessions
E.    Reflexive access lists can be attached to extended named IP ACLs
F.    Reflexive access lists support TCP sessions

Answer: DEF

QUESTION 19
Which actions can a promiscuous IPS take to mitigate an attack?

A.    modifying packets
B.    requesting connection blocking
C.    denying packets
D.    resetting the TCP connection
E.    requesting host blocking
F.    denying frames

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
Promiscuous Mode Event Actions
The following event actions can be deployed in Promiscuous mode. These actions are in affect for a user- configurable default time of 30 minutes. Because the IPS sensor must send the request to another device or craft a packet, latency is associated with these actions and could allow some attacks to be successful.
Blocking through usage of the Attack Response Controller (ARC) has the potential benefit of being able to perform to the network edge or at multiple places within the network.
Request block host: This event action will send an ARC request to block the host for a specified time frame, preventing any further communication. This is a severe action that is most appropriate when there is minimal chance of a false alarm or spoofing.
Request block connection: This action will send an ARC response to block the specific connection. This action is appropriate when there is potential for false alarms or spoofing.
Reset TCP connection: This action is TCP specific, and in instances where the attack requires several TCP packets, this can be a successful action. However, in some cases where the attack only needs one packet it may not work as well. Additionally, TCP resets are not very effective with protocols such as SMTP that consistently try to establish new connections, nor are they effective if the reset cannot reach the destination host in time.
Event actions can be specified on a per signature basis, or as an event action override (based on risk rating values ?event action override only). In the case of event action override, specific event actions are performed when specific risk rating value conditions are met. Event action overrides offer consistent and simplified management. IPS version 6.0 contains a default event action override with a deny-packet-inline action for events with a risk rating between 90 and 100. For this action to occur, the device must be deployed in Inline mode.
Protection from unintended automated action responses
Automated event actions can have unintended consequences when not carefully deployed. The most severe consequence can be a self denial of service (DoS) of a host or network. The majority of these unintended consequences can be avoided through the use of Event Action Filters, Never Block Addresses, Network spoofing protections, and device tuning. The following provides an overview of methods used to prevent unintended consequences from occurring.
Using Event Action Filters and Never Block
By using these capabilities, administrators may prevent a miscreant from spoofing critical IP addresses, causing a self inflicted DoS condition on these critical IP addresses. Note that Never Block capabilities only apply to ARC actions. Actions that are performed inline will still be performed as well as rate limiting if they are configured.
Minimize spoofing
Administrators can minimize spoofed packets that enter the network through the use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding. Administrators can minimize spoofing within their network through the use of IP Source Guard. The white paper titled Understanding Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding provides details on configuration of this feature. More information on IP Source Guard is available in the document titled Configuring DHCP Features and IP Source Guard.
Careful Use of Event Actions
By judicious use of event actions that block unwanted traffic, such as using the high signature fidelity rating, and not using automated actions on signatures that are easily spoofed, administrators can reduce the probability of an unintended result. For an event to have a high risk rating, it must have a high signature fidelity rating unless the risk rating is artificially increased through the use of Target Value Rating or Watch List Rating, which are IP specific increases.
Tuning
By tuning the signature set to minimize false positive events, administrators can reduce the chance of an event action that has an unintended consequence.
High Base Risk Rating Events
In most cases, events with a high base risk rating or a high signature fidelity rating are strong candidates for automated event actions. Care should be taken with protocols that are easily spoofed in order to prevent self DoS conditions.

QUESTION 20
Which Cisco Security Manager application collects information about device status and uses it to generate notifications and alerts?

A.    FlexConfig
B.    Device Manager
C.    Report Manager
D.    Health and Performance Monitor

Answer: D
Explanation:
“Report Manager – Collects, displays and exports network usage and security information for ASA and IPS devices, and for remote-access IPsec and SSL VPNs. These reports aggregate security data such as top sources, destinations, attackers, victims, as well as security information such as top bandwidth, duration, and throughput users. Data is also aggregated for hourly, daily, and monthly periods.” and
“Health and Performance Monitor (HPM) ?Monitors and displays key health, performance and VPN data for ASA and IPS devices in your network. This information includes critical and non-critical issues, such as memory usage, interface status, dropped packets, tunnel status, and so on. You also can categorize devices for normal or priority monitoring, and set different alert rules for the priority devices.”

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QUESTION 11
Which of the following for which of the following cable style connector?

A.    DVI
B.    VGA
C.    RGB
D.    Composite video

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.crutchfield.com/S-zwZUk3RXHNR/learn/learningcenter/home/connections_glossary.html (see composite video jack)

QUESTION 12
A technician replaces a computer’s NIC with a wireless card. The user wants to save the NIC. Which of the following should the technician use to preserve the NIC?

A.    ESD mat
B.    ESD wrist strap
C.    Sealable plastic bag
D.    Anti-static bag

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A technician needs to replace a computer’s hard drive. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

A.    Remove network connections
B.    Remove the RAM
C.    Self ground on the computer case
D.    Disconnect power to PC

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
When a user’s computer boots, a message shows that reads: “Alert! Cover previously removed.” Which of the following was configured in the BIOS to cause this alert?

A.    Boot sequence
B.    Date/time clock settings
C.    Intrusion detection
D.    Virtualization support

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following ports is used by default for IMAP traffic?

A.    53
B.    110
C.    143
D.    443

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following ports is used for POP3 traffic by default?

A.    25
B.    110
C.    143
D.    443

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Post_Office_Protocol

QUESTION 17
A technician is asked to verify that a CAT5 patch cord, created by another technician, is in working order. Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify the patch cord?

A.    Multimeter
B.    Toner probe
C.    Loopback plug
D.    Cable tester

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the FIRST thing a technician should do before putting their hand inside a computer case?

A.    Acquire the appropriate tools that are going to be used.
B.    Touch the case to discharge static.
C.    Remove loose jewelry.
D.    Refer to manufacturer documentation.

Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which of the following socket types is for an Intel CPU?

A.    F
B.    940
C.    AM3
D.    1156

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/LGA_1156

QUESTION 20
Which of the following cable types is MOST often found in Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS)?

A.    RG-6
B.    CAT3
C.    RG-59
D.    Multi-mode

Answer: B

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QUESTION 188
You have an Active Directory forest that contains 30 servers and 6,000 Client computers.
You deploy a new DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to retrieve the list of the authorized DHCP servers.
Which command should you run?

A.    Get-DHCPServerDatabase
B.    Netstat -p IP -s -a
C.    Get-DHCPServerInDc
D.    Show-ADAuthenticationPolicyExpression -AllowedToAuthenticateTo

Answer: C
Explanation:
To get all authorized DHCP servers in Active Directory, you can use the following PowerShell cmdlet: Get-DhcpServerinDC

QUESTION 189
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Refer to exhibit: Server1 has two virtual machines named VM1 and VM that run Windows Server 2016. VM1 connects to Private VM2 has two network adapters.

You need to ensure that VM1 connects to the corporate network by using NAT.

Solution: You connect VM1 to Internal1. You run the New-NetNatIpAddress and the New- NetNat cmdlets on Server1. You configure VM1 to use VM2 as the default gateway.

Does this meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

QUESTION 190
You have a Hyper-V server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has an IP address of 192.168.1.78. Server1 has a container named Container1 that hosts a web application on port 84. Container1 has an IP address of 172.16.5.6. Container1 has a port mapping from port 80 on Server1 to port 84 on Container1. You have a server named Server2 that has an IP address of 192.168.1.79. You need to connect to the web application from Server2.
To which IP address and port should you connect?

A.    172.16.5.6:80
B.    192.168.1.78:80
C.    172.16.5.6:84
D.    192.168.1.78:84

Answer: A

QUESTION 191
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the DHCP Server and the Windows Deployment Service server roles installed.

Server1 is located on the same subnet as client computers.

You need to ensure that clients can perform a PXE boot from Server1.

Which two IPv4 options should you configure in DHCP? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    003 Router
B.    066 Boot Server Host Name
C.    015 DNS Domain Name
D.    006 DNS Servers
E.    060 Option 60

Answer: BE

QUESTION 192
You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) server named ADFS1, a Web Application Proxy server named WAP1, and a web server named Web1.

You need to publish a website on Web1 by using the Web Application Proxy. Users will authenticate by using OAuth2 preauthentication.

What should you do first?

A.    On Web1, add site bindings.
B.    On Web1, add handler mappings.
C.    On ADFS1, enable an endpoint.
D.    On ADFS1, add a claims provider trust.

Answer: D

QUESTION 193
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Containers feature installed.

You create a text file that contains the commands that will be used to automate the creation of new containers.

You need to ensure that the commands in the text file are used when you create new containers.

What should you name the file?

A.    Bootstrap.ini
B.    Config.ini
C.    Dockerfile
D.    Unattend.txt

Answer: C

QUESTION 194
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution.

You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a line-of- business application named App1. App1 has a memory leak that occasionally causes the application to consume an excessive amount of memory.

You need to log an event in the Application event log whenever App1 consume more than 4 GB of memory.

Solution: You create a performance counter data collector.

Does this meet the goal?’

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

QUESTION 195
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2016.

The server contains a storage pool named Pool1. Pool1 contains five physical disks named Disk1, Disk2, Disk3, Disk4, and Disk5.

A virtual disk named VirtualDisk1 is stored in Pool1.
VirtualDisk1 uses the parity storage layout.

Disk3 fails.

You need to remove Disk3 from Pool1.

Which two commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Update-StoragePool 璅riendlyName Pool1
B.    Set-ResiliencySetting 璖toragePool Pool1 璓hysicalDiskRedundancyDefault 4
C.    Reset-PhysicalDisk 璅riendlyName Disk3
D.    Remove-PhysicalDisk 璅riendlyName Disk3
E.    Set-PhysicalDisk 璅riendlyName Disk3 璘sage Retired

Answer: DE

QUESTION 196
You have an IP Address Management (IPAM) deployment that is used to manage all of the DNS servers on your network. IPAM is configured to use Group Policy provisioning.

You discover that a user adds a new mail exchanger (MX) record to one of the DNS zones.
You want to identify which user added the record.

You open Event Catalog on an IPAM server, and you discover that the most recent event occurred yesterday. You need to ensure that the operational events in the event catalog are never older than one hour.

What should you do?

A.    From the properties on the DNS zone, modify the refresh interval.
B.    From an IPAM_DNS Group Policy object (GPO), modify the Group Policy refresh interval.
C.    From Task Scheduler, modify the Microsoft\Windows\IPAM\Audit task.
D.    From Task Scheduler, create a scheduled task that runs the Update-IpamServer cmdlet.

Answer: A

QUESTION 197
You have a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster that contains two servers named Server1 and Server2.

The Cluster Service on Server1 fails.

You need to identify the cause of the failure.

What should you do?

A.    From Event Viewer, review the Application event log.
B.    From Event Viewer, review the System event log.
C.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-ClusterLog cmdlet.
D.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Get-ClusterNode cmdlet.

Answer: B

QUESTION 198
You have a container host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

You need to start a Hyper-V container on Server1.

Which parameter should you use with the docker run command?

A.    –runtime
B.    –entrypoint
C.    –privileged
D.    –isolation
E.    –expose

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/deploy-containers/system-requirements

QUESTION 199
You have a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016, VM1 hosts a service that requires high network throughput.

VM1 has a virtual network adapter that connects to a Hyper-V switch named vSwitch1. vSwitch1 has one network adapter. The network adapter supports Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA), the single root I/O virtualization (SR-IOV) interface, Quality of Service? (QoS), and Receive Side Scaling (RSS).

You need to ensure that the traffic from VM1 can be processed by multiple networking processors.

Which Windows PowerShell command should you run on the host of VM1?

A.    Set-NetAdapterRss
B.    Set-NetAdapterRdma
C.    Set-NetAdapterQos
D.    Set-NetAdapterSriov

Answer: D

QUESTION 200
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.

Sever1 is an IP Address Management (IPAM) server that collects DHCP and DNS logs and events for your entire network.

You need to enable a user named TECH1 to create pointer (PTR), host (A) and service location (SRV) records on all of the DNS servers on the network.

What should you do on Server1?

A.    Run the Set-IpamCustomFieId cmdlet and then run the Set-IpamAddressSpace cmdlet
B.    From the IPAM node in Server Manager, create a new user role and a new access policy
C.    Run the Set-IpamCustomField cmdlet and then run the Set-IpamAccessScope cmdlet
D.    From the IPAM node in Server Manager, create a new user role and a new access scope.

Answer: D

QUESTION 201
You create a Storage Spaces Direct hyper-converged failover cluster. The duster contains three nodes and a 1-TB Storage Spaces Direct volume.

The cluster will store virtual machines.

You plan to extend the volume by adding an additional 3 TB.

What is the minimum amount of extra disk capacity required to accommodate extending the volume?

A.    3 TB on the coordinator node
B.    3 TB per node
C.    4 TB per node
D.    4 TB on the coordinator node

Answer: A

QUESTION 202
You have Hyper-V virtual machines that run 50 web servers, 10 Microsoft SQL Server servers. 10 file servers, and eight domain controllers.

You need to implement a backup strategy that meets the following requirements:

* Backs up all servers
* Centralizes backup management
* Performs application-level backups
* Provides the ability to perform bare metal recovery

What should you use?

A.    Microsoft Azure VM Backup
B.    Microsoft Azure Backup Agent
C.    Windows Server Backup
D.    Microsoft Azure Backup Server

Answer: A

QUESTION 203
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 and has the File and Storage Services server role installed. Server1 has an ReFS-formatted volume named Volume1 that is 512 GB. Volume1 is mounted as C:\Appl\temp. You need to ensure that you can enable deduplication of Volume1. What should you do?

A.    Format Volume1
B.    Install a Windows feature.
C.    Initialize the physical disk that contains Volume1.
D.    Unmount Volume1.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

A.    CMA Clients
B.    Jabber Video
C.    Immersive Telepresence endpoints
D.    Legacy H.323 endpoints

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Whichcallcontrol solution supportsmessaging, meeting and calling?

A.    HCS
B.    Expressway
C.    Spark
D.    UCM

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which conferencing solution is designed for highly scalable meetings, training and events?

A.    Cisco Meeting Server
B.    Cisco WebEx
C.    Spark
D.    TelePresence Server

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/conferencing/webex-meeting-center/datasheet-c78-734100.html

QUESTION 4
Which productis required forschedulingaCMR Hybrid meeting?

A.    TMSXE
B.    Any version of TMS
C.    TMS version 14.3 or later
D.    WebEx Scheduler App

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which is amethod used by the Expresswayfor bandwidth control?

A.    Zones
B.    Hunt Groups
C.    Subzones
D.    Regions

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
How many video endpoints can call into a CMR Cloud meeting?

A.    8
B.    10
C.    50
D.    26

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which call processing stage standardizes destination aliases originating from both SIP and H.323 devices?

A.    Conference Template
B.    Find Rules
C.    Transforms
D.    Hunt Group

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco Spark Bottypeact as a text-based remote control for external services?

A.    Controllers
B.    Assistants
C.    SMS to Spark Bot
D.    Notifiers

Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which conferencing solution is designed for messaging,meeting, callingandpersistentSharing?

A.    Cisco Meeting Server
B.    CMR
C.    TelePresence Server
D.    Spark

Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which is a protocol usedinthe traversing of media across afirewall through theExpressway?

A.    H.460 18/19
B.    H.239
C.    H.245
D.    SIP

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer.

You are working on a new solution that will support multiple languages and regions, and you need to uselabels.

Which two best practices should you follow when using the labels?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

A.    Use descriptive text for the label file ID.
B.    Use labels for elements and artifacts.
C.    Use the name of the model for of the label file name.
D.    Use a new label ID for every element or artifact.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
You should use labels for every user-facing element or artifact in Dynamics 365 for Finance and
Operations.
For multi-language label files, you should ensure that labels containappropriate translations of theactivity or item that they describe.
You should also use labels when programming for all external strings. You should create a label file with the same name as the associated model.

QUESTION 2
You are a developer working on a new customized form and are troubleshooting a defect on the form.

The form displays a summary for each line. The defect report says that the form shows the incorrect summary for return order lines.
A display method provides the summary, and the method calls the following:

public str salesLineSummary(
SalesType _type,
str _orderNum,
ItemId _itemId,
Qty _lineQty,
Amount _lineAmount
)
{
Amount baseAmount = _lineAmount > 0 ? _lineAmount : -1 * _lineAmount;
str formattedAmount = num2Str(baseAmount, 10, 2, DecimalSeparator::Dot,
ThousandSeparator::Comma);
str summary;
switch (_type)
{
case SalesType::Sales:
summary = strFmt(‘Order %1 ordered %2 of %3 [Subtotal: %4]’,
_orderNum, _lineQty, _itemId, formattedAmount);
break;
case SalesType::ReturnItem:
summary = strFmt(‘RMA %1 expecting %2 of %3 for %4 credit’,
_orderNum, _lineQty, _itemId, formattedAmount);
default:
summary = strFmt(‘Journal %1: %2 of %3’, _orderNum, _lineQty,
_itemId);
}
return summary;
}

You need to fix the defect in the most efficient way possible.

Which modification should you make?

A.    Remove the default block of code from the switch statement.
B.    Add an If statement to the default block of code in the switch statement.
C.    Exchange theSalesType::Saleswith theSalesType::ReturnItemblocks of code in the switch
statement.
D.    Add a break statement before the default block of code in the switch statement.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You create a new retail server API for a Cloud point-of-sale (POS) solution in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail.

You need to register your new retail server extension.

Which file should you update?

A.    Retail Store Front web.config
B.    Retail Server web.config
C.    Retail Cloud POS web.config
D.    AOS Service web.config

Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your development team plans to use the new API exposed in Commerce Runtime (CRT) to set/get orvalidate values based on enum type.

Which two benefits will your team gain from using the new API in this manner? Each correct answerpresets a complete solution.

A.    They can directly map between Finance and Operations enumsand CRT enums without manuallycreating the enums in CRT.
B.    They can easily override or add triggers at specific extension points instead of owning the entire serviceor operation.
C.    They can help skip certain checks used to override the entire calculate service by adding pre/posttriggers for the validation check.
D.    They can have multiple partners and ISVs create extensible enums and use them independentlywithout any code merge.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
With the new extensible enum exposed in CRT, you can directly map between Finance and Operations enums and CRT enums without manually creating the enums in CRT. Multiple partners and ISVs cancreate extensible enums and use them in their code independently without any code merge.

QUESTION 5
Employees who use a Cloud point-of-sale (POS) at a store report that the product information is notcurrent.There is no Retail Store Scale Unit deployed at the store, and you suspect that the scheduler job thatupdates product information has failed.

Which two actions can you take to check the status of the scheduler job?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

A.    In Event Viewer, look at the Commerce-RetailServer event log for an event that references the job.
B.    In Lifecycle Services (LCS), look in Environment monitoring, and search Activity for the batch job that includes the scheduler job.
C.    In Retails Headquarters, look at the history of the distribution schedule that includes the scheduler job.
D.    In the Cloud POS, look at the Database connection status screen for the job.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Retail distribution jobs uses the commerce data exchange async server and the retail scheduler.
The components of messages, environments, and jobs are all collected and surfaced up to LCS to providea one-stop overview of diagnostics and monitoring.

QUESTION 6
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer workingin the “ABCModule” module in anexisting solution.

You create a new label in the XYZ-en-US.label.txt file with a Label ID of “LabelText”, a Label of “Text forthe Label”, and a Description of “ABC”.

How should you reference this new label in the Label property of an artifact?

A.    @ABCModule.XYZ.LabelText
B.    @XYZ:LabelText
C.    @ABCModule.XYZ[LabelText]
D.    @XYZ[LabelText]

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are writing a JSON-based custom service to consume a new data entity.

You need to expose the data entity to the OData service.

What should you do on the data entity to achieve this goal?

A.    Set the PrimaryKey to EntityKey.
B.    Set the Visible property to Yes.
C.    Set the IsPublic property to Yes.
D.    Set the DataManagementEnabled to Yes.

Answer: C
Explanation:
OData entities in Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations are basedon the concept of an updatableview. When the public property for an updatable view is set to true, this view is exposed as a top level OData entity.

QUESTION 8
You manage package deployments for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 Retail environment, and you need to determine if a package rebuild is necessary.

Which scenario requires a package rebuild?

A.    You want to re-run a build due to warnings that appear in the Error List pane concerning best practices.
B.    You want to force a build of all objects, regardless of whether they have changed.
C.    You want to build dependent and reference models at the same time.
D.    You cannot set the Synchronize database on the Build Property to True.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The rebuild will perform a full compile, which will take a bit longer. The rebuild option combines the cleanand build steps so we don’t have to separately run clean and build.

QUESTION 9
You are extending primitive data types to make your code more readable, and you need to assign

Extended Data Types (EDT) properties.
Which best practice should you follow?

A.    Do not leave the display length and style an Auto.
B.    Ensure that the HelpText property is the same as the label.
C.    Do not use labels for user interface text.
D.    Ensure that you reference an EDT when creating table fields.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Wherever possible, you should avoid the creation of table fields which don’t reference an EDT, as this makes potential future changes more difficult to implement.

QUESTION 10
You are reviewing the basic set of primitive data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations with a client.

The client wants to know the best data type to use for a set of literals,such as states of nature or keyreporting structures.

Which type should you tell the client?

A.    Strings
B.    Anytype
C.    Containers
D.    Enumerations

Answer: D
Explanation:
Enums: An abbreviation for enumerated text – a set of literals.

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QUESTION 11
In which of the following locations would a technician go to show file extensions?

A.    Security Center
B.    Folder Options
C.    Display
D.    System

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/show-hide-file-name-extensions#show-hide-file-name-extensions=windows-vista

QUESTION 12
After being relocated to an enclosed position under a desk, a computer experiences intermittent shutdowns. Which of the following conditions is MOST likely the cause?

A.    Power surges
B.    Overheating
C.    APIPA addressing
D.    RF interference

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://lifehacker.com/5570909/how-to-prevent-your-computer-from-overheating-and-why-its-important

QUESTION 13
A technician is fixing a very slow computer. Antivirus and Malware programs have been run, and some detections have been removed. After running Disk Cleanup, the system still seems to be slow, especially with multiple programs running.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A.    Run CHKDSK
B.    Manually erase all cookies
C.    Go back to the latest restore point
D.    Run defrag

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://windows.about.com/od/maintainandfix/ss/SBSdefragWin7.htm

QUESTION 14
A technician needs to use a command line tool to determine the network name and the IP address of a resource.
Which of the following command line tools will provide an IP address when given a name?

A.    verify
B.    tracert
C.    ipconfig
D.    nslookup

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.computerhope.com/nslookup.htm

QUESTION 15
A user wants to configure their network to support VoIP.
Which of the following would BEST support a VoIP installation?

A.    QoS
B.    POTS
C.    Wake-on-LAN
D.    VPN

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.petri.co.il/voip-quality-of-service-basics.htm

QUESTION 16
A user is concerned about an issue with iOS.
The user MOST likely has which of the following devices?

A.    iCloud
B.    Android Phone
C.    iPhone
D.    Windows Tablet

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IOS

QUESTION 17
A user has installed a legacy application in Windows 7 and reports that only some of the functionality in it is operational. Another user is using the same application on a different Windows 7 machine and doesn’t report those problems.
Which of the following features in Windows 7 may be responsible for this problem?

A.    System Protection settings
B.    User Account Control
C.    Action Center
D.    Data Execution Prevention

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows7/products/features/user-account-control

QUESTION 18
A user reports that they are getting frequent delayed write messages throughout the day and are experiencing sluggish performance. The technician suspects that the issue relates to the hard disk drive. Which of the following would BEST help validate the diagnosis?

A.    System information
B.    Event viewer
C.    POST card
D.    SMART status

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.howtogeek.com/134735/how-to-see-if-your-hard-drive-is-dying/

QUESTION 19
A user states that they are having a problem with their word processor on their laptop. Whenever they attempt to type letters with their right hand, numbers and symbols show up instead. Which of the following would address this issue?

A.    Switch to a standardized font
B.    Restore regional settings to default
C.    Toggle the function + num lock combination
D.    Connect a full sized external keyboard

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://forum.notebookreview.com/windows-os-software/43702-holding-fn-key-toggle-numlock.html

QUESTION 20
Which of the following security threats is defined by its self propagating characteristic?

A.    Virus
B.    Rootkit
C.    Trojan
D.    Worm

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.pcworld.com/article/111965/article.html

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QUESTION 11
Which of these determines the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to which an IP phone registers?

A.    The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with a Device Pool that designates the primary, secondary, and tertiary servers in the group.
B.    Each IP phone is configured with a Device Pool containing the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group that determines which server the IP phone will use as its primary, secondary, and tertiary server.
C.    Each IP phone is configured with its primary, secondary, and tertiary server.
D.    The Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured in the publisher to designate the IP phone groups that will register with the primary, secondary, and tertiary servers in the group.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager menu path is used to access the softkey template configuration window?

A.    Device > Device Settings > Softkey Templates
B.    Device Settings > Softkey Templates
C.    IP Phone > Template > Softkey
D.    Device > IP Phone > Template > Softkey

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Where is a Local Route Group configuration applied?

A.    In each IP phone
B.    In each device pool
C.    In each location
D.    In each region
E.    In each route list

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
If no SIP dial rules are configured on an IP phone, at which three points in the collection of digits does a Type A SIP phone send digits to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.)

A.    when the interdigit timer expires
B.    when the collected digits match a SIP dial rule
C.    when the user presses the Dial softkey
D.    as each digit is collected (it is sent for analysis)
E.    when the user presses the # key

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. To reach an external number, a user first dials a 9.
Which route pattern will be matched if a user dials the toll-free number 18005550123?

A.    911
B.    9.[2-9]XXXXXX
C.    9.1[2-9]XX[2-9]XXXXXX
D.    9.18[0,6-8][0,6-8]XXXXXXX
E.    9.1900XXXXXXX
F.    9011!

Answer: C
Explanation:
In CUCM, the comma character can not be used in the pattern field of a route pattern.

QUESTION 16
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X, and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5124?

A.    5XXX
B.    51XX
C.    513X
D.    5134

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?

A.    5XXX
B.    51XX
C.    513X
D.    5134

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which two options are resources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern? (Choose two.)

A.    gateways
B.    route groups
C.    virtual machine servers
D.    IP phones

Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?

A.    Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B.    Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C.    Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D.    Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which discard digits instruction removes the access code from a number before passing the number onto an adjacent system?

A.    PreDot
B.    PreAt
C.    NoDigits
D.    Trailing-#

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item. The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650. the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone. The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20. the Cisco Telepresence MCU. and the Cisco Jabber Telepresence for Windows.

SX20 System information:

DX650 Configuration:

MRGL:

DP:

Locations:

AARG:

CSS:

Movi Failure:

Movie Settings:

What two issues could be causing the Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two)

A.    Incorrect username and password.
B.    Wrong SIP domain configured.
C.    User is not associated with the device.
D.    IP or DNS name resolution issue.
E.    CSF Device is not registered.
F.    IP Phone DN not associated with the user.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
Assume that the Cisco IOS SAF Forwarder is configured correctly.
Which minimum configurations on Cisco Unified Communications Manager are needed for the SAF registration to take place?

A.    SAF Trunk, SAF Security Profile, SAF Forwarder, and CCD Advertising Service
B.    SAF Trunk, SAF Security Profile, SAF Forwarder, and CCD Requesting Service
C.    SAF Trunk, SAF Security Profile, SAF Forwarder, CCD Requesting Service, and CCD Advertising
Service
D.    SAF Trunk, SAF Security Profile, and SAF Forwarder
E.    SAF Trunk, CCD Requesting Service, and CCD Advertising Service

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When a SIP trunk is added for Call Control Discovery, which statement is true?

A.    The SIP trunk is added by selecting SIP Trunk and SIP Protocol.
The Enable SAF check box should be selected.
B.    The SIP trunk is added by selecting SIP Trunk and SIP Protocol.
The Trunk Service Type should be Call Control Discovery.
C.    The SIP trunk is added by selecting Call Control Discovery Trunk and then selecting SIP as the
protocol to be used.
D.    The SIP trunk is added by selecting SIP Trunk and SIP Protocol.
The destination IP address field is configured as `SAF’ to indicate that this trunk is used for SAF.

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
When an H.323 trunk is added for Call Control Discovery, which statement is true?

A.    The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-Cluster Trunk. The Enable SAF check box should be selected in the trunk configuration.
B.    The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk (Non-Gatekeeper Controlled) and Device Protocol Inter-Cluster Trunk. The Trunk Service Type should be Call Control Discovery.
C.    The H.323 trunk is added by selecting Call Control Discovery Trunk and then selecting H.323 as the protocol to be used.
D.    The H.323 trunk is added by selecting H.323 Trunk, and selecting Inter-Cluster Trunk as the Device Protocol. The destination IP address field is configured as `SAF’ to indicate that this trunk is used for SAF.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco IOS command is used to verify that a SAF Forwarder that is registered with Cisco Unified Communications Manager has established neighbor relations with an adjacent SAF Forwarder?

A.    show eigrp service-family ipv4 neighbors
B.    show eigrp address-family ipv4 neighbors
C.    show voice saf dndball
D.    show saf neighbors
E.    show ip saf neighbors

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco IOS command is used to verify that the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express has registered with the SAF Forwarder?

A.    show eigrp service-family ipv4 clients
B.    show eigrp address-family ipv4 clients
C.    show voice saf dndb all
D.    show saf registration
E.    show ip saf registration

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statement about Service Advertisement Framework is true?

A.    SAF requires that the EIGRP be configured on all routers, including non-SAF routers.
B.    SAF requires that the EIGRP be configured only on SAF routers.
Non-SAF routers act as an IP cloud.
C.    SAF has no dependency on the underlying routing protocol, as long as it is a dynamic routing protocol.
Static routes are not supported.
D.    SAF operates on any dynamic or static IP routing configuration.
SAF is totally independent of the underlying routing protocol.

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which three devices support the SAF Call Control Discovery protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    Cisco Unified Border Element
B.    Cisco Unity Connection
C.    Cisco IOS Gatekeeper
D.    Cisco Catalyst Switch
E.    Cisco IOS Gateway
F.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager

Answer: AEF

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QUESTION 11
By default, what are two options that are presented to callers for forwarded calls into a Cisco Unity Connection system? (Choose two.)

A.    Log in to their mailbox.
B.    Listen to the opening greeting.
C.    Leave a message if forwarder has a mailbox.
D.    Enter user ID and PIN.
E.    Log in to remote mailbox.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
What is required of a user to retrieve voice mail once they are notified of a new message by Cisco Unity Connection Message notification on their mobile phone?

A.    Password
B.    PIN
C.    user ID
D.    user extension
E.    FAC

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
After the initial Cisco Unity Connection installation, how and where can the time zone be changed?

A.    The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Operating System
Administration GUI.
B.    The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Communications
Manager GUI.
C.    The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unified Operating System CLI.
D.    The Cisco Unity Connection time zone can be changed from the Cisco Unity Connection CLI.
E.    The Cisco Unity Connection time zone cannot be changed after the initial installation. A reinstallation
is required.

Answer: D

QUESTION 14
An IP phone user reports that they are unable to set the Call Forward All feature on their phone. The user reports that they press the CfwdAll softkey and enter the desired telephone number, but the phone does not accept it. What could be causing this issue?

A.    The user is entering too many digits for the destination number.
B.    Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not control Call Forward.
C.    The Call Forward All service parameter is not enabled.
D.    The Call Forward All option of the IP phone does not have a CSS defined.
E.    The Call Forward All enterprise parameter is not enabled.

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which messaging interface provides support for an Apple iPhone, Android, and Blackberry?

A.    Cisco Unity Connection
B.    Cisco Unity Express
C.    Cisco Unity
D.    Cisco Unity Mobile

Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which tool is used to migrate users from Cisco Unity to Cisco Unity Connection?

A.    CSV import
B.    LDAP import
C.    Exchange Synch import
D.    COBRAS import
E.    Cisco Unity Migration Assistant

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which type of video service does Cisco Unity Connection use to provide video services?

A.    multipoint control unit
B.    video control services
C.    conductor
D.    Cisco Presence Service
E.    MediaSense

Answer: E

QUESTION 18
When troubleshooting an MWI issue in Cisco Unity Connection, which task should you perform in the phone system component at the beginning of troubleshooting?

A.    Ensure that MWI is enabled for the user.
B.    Ensure that the user has the correct phone system assigned.
C.    Run the Check Telephony Integration test.
D.    Ensure that the ports are configured for MWI only.
E.    Ensure that the pilot number matches the Cisco Unified Communications Manager configured pilot number.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which tool that is used for troubleshooting Cisco Unified Communications Manager is also used to troubleshoot and monitor Cisco Unity Connection?

A.    Cisco Unified Dialed Number Analyzer
B.    Cisco Unified Monitoring and Troubleshooting Tool
C.    Cisco Unified Real Time Monitoring Tool
D.    Cisco Unified Port Monitor
E.    Cisco Unified Serviceability

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
What does the Primary Extension column define when importing users?

A.    the main extension that callers dial to reach a user
B.    the pilot number that is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express to access Cisco Unity Express
C.    the mailbox ID that is assigned by Cisco Unity Express during import
D.    the primary extension that is to be used for CFNA and CFB

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
Refer to the following command:

router(config)# ip http secure-port 4433

Which statement is true?

A.    The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTPS traffic.
B.    The router will listen on port 4433 for HTTP traffic.
C.    The router will never accept any HTTP and HTTPS traffic.
D.    The router will listen to HTTP and HTTP traffic on port 4433.

Answer: A
Explanation:
To set the secure HTTP (HTTPS) server port number for listening, use the ip http secure-port command in global configuration mode. To return the HTTPS server port number to the default, use the no form of this command.
Ip http secure-port port-number
no ip http secure-port
Syntax Description
port-number
Integer in the range of 0 to 65535 is accepted, but the port number must be higher than 1024 unless the default is used. The default is 443.
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios-xml/ios/https/command/nm-https-cr-cl-sh.html#wp3612805529

QUESTION 12
A network engineer is configuring SNMP on network devices to utilize one-way SNMP notifications. However, the engineer is not concerned with authentication or encryption.
Which command satisfies the requirements of this scenario?

A.    router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 2c CISCORO
B.    router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 2c CISCORO
C.    router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 traps version 3 auth CISCORO
D.    router(config)#snmp-server host 172.16.201.28 informs version 3 auth CISCORO

Answer: A
Explanation:
Most network admins and engineers are familiar with SNMPv2c which has become the dominant SNMP version of the past decade. It’s simple to configure on both the router/switch-side and just as easy on the network monitoring server. The problem of course is that the SNMP statistical payload is not encrypted and authentication is passed in cleartext. Most companies have decided that the information being transmitted isn’t valuable enough to be worth the extra effort in upgrading to SNMPv3, but I would suggest otherwise.
Like IPv4 to Ipv6, there are some major changes under the hood. SNMP version 2 uses community strings (think cleartext passwords, no encryption) to authenticate polling and trap delivery. SNMP version 3 moves away from the community string approach in favor of user-based authentication and view-based access control. The users are not actual local user accounts, rather they are simply a means to determine who can authenticate to the device. The view is used to define what the user account may access on the IOS device. Finally, each user is added to a group, which determines the access policy for its users. Users, groups, views.
http://www.ccnpguide.com/snmp-version-3/

QUESTION 13
When using SNMPv3 with NoAuthNoPriv, which string is matched for authentication?

A.    username
B.    password
C.    community-string
D.    encryption-key

Answer: A
Explanation:
The following security models exist: SNMPv1, SNMPv2, SNMPv3. The following security levels exits: “noAuthNoPriv” (no authentiation and no encryption ?noauth keyword in CLI), “AuthNoPriv109thernet109ationre authenticated but not encrypted ?auth keyword in CLI), “AuthPriv” (messages are authenticated and encrypted ?priv keyword in CLI). SNMPv1 and SNMPv2 models only support the “noAuthNoPriv” model since they use plain community string to match the incoming packets. The SNMPv3 implementations could be configured to use either of the models on per-group basis (in case if “noAuthNoPriv” is configured, username serves as a replacement for community string).
http://blog.ine.com/2008/07/19/snmpv3-tutorial/

QUESTION 14
After a recent DoS attack on a network, senior management asks you to implement better logging functionality on all IOS-based devices.
Which two actions can you take to provide enhanced logging results? (Choose two.)

A.    Use the msec option to enable service time stamps.
B.    Increase the logging history.
C.    Set the logging severity level to 1.
D.    Specify a logging rate limit.
E.    Disable event logging on all noncritical items.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
The optional msec keyword specifies the date/time format should include milliseconds. This can aid in pinpointing the exact time of events, or to correlate the order that the events happened. To limit syslog messages sent to the router’s history table and to an SNMP network management station based on severity, use the logging history command in global configuration mode. By default, Cisco devices Log error messages of severity levels 0 through 4 (emergency, alert, critical, error, and warning levels); in other words, “saving level warnings or higher.” By increasing the severity level, more granular monitoring can occur, and SNMP messages will be sent by the less sever (5-7) messages.

QUESTION 15
A network engineer finds that a core router has crashed without warning. In this situation, which feature can the engineer use to create a crash collection?

A.    secure copy protocol
B.    core dumps
C.    warm reloads
D.    SNMP
E.    NetFlow

Answer: B
Explanation:
When a router crashes, it is sometimes useful to obtain a full copy of the memory image (called a core dump) to identify the cause of the crash. Core dumps are generally very useful to your technical support representative.
Four basic ways exist for setting up the router to generate a core dump:
Using Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)
Using File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
Using remote copy protocol (rcp)
Using a Flash disk
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/internetworking/troubleshooting/guide/tr19aa.html

QUESTION 16
A network engineer is trying to implement broadcast-based NTP in a network and executes the ntp broadcast client command. Assuming that an NTP server is already set up, what is the result of the command?

A.    It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on the interface where the command was executed.
B.    It enables receiving NTP broadcasts on all interfaces globally.
C.    It enables a device to be an NTP peer to another device.
D.    It enables a device to receive NTP broadcast and unicast packets.

Answer: A
Explanation:
The NTP service can be activated by entering any ntp command. When you use the ntp broadcast client command, the NTP service is activated (if it has not already been activated) and the device is configured to receive NTP broadcast packets on a specified interface simultaneously.

Command
Description
ntp broadcast client
Allows the system to receive NTP broadcast packets on an interface.

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/bsm/command/bsm-xe-3se-3850-cr-book/bsm-xe-3se-3850-cr-book_chapter_00.html

QUESTION 17
Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)

A.    header compression
B.    explicit congestion notification
C.    keepalive
D.    time stamps
E.    TCP path discovery
F.    MTU window

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
TCP Selective Acknowledgment
The TCP Selective Acknowledgment feature improves performance if multiple packets are lost from one TCP window of data.
Prior to this feature, because of limited information available from cumulative acknowledgments, a TCP sender could learn about only one lost packet per-round-trip time. An aggressive sender could choose to resend packets early, but such re-sent segments might have already been successfully received.
The TCP selective acknowledgment mechanism helps improve performance. The receiving TCP host returns selective acknowledgment packets to the sender, informing the sender of data that has been received. In other words, the receiver can acknowledge packets received out of order. The sender can then resend only missing data segments (instead of everything since the first missing packet).
Prior to selective acknowledgment, if TCP lost packets 4 and 7 out of an 8-packet window, TCP would receive acknowledgment of only packets 1, 2, and 3. Packets 4 through 8 would need to be re-sent. With selective acknowledgment, TCP receives acknowledgment of packets 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, and 8. Only packets 4 and 7 must be re-sent.
TCP selective acknowledgment is used only when multiple packets are dropped within one TCP window. There is no performance impact when the feature is enabled but not used. Use the ip tcp selective-ack command in global configuration mode to enable TCP selective acknowledgment. Refer to RFC 2018 for more details about TCP selective acknowledgment.
TCP Time Stamp
The TCP time-stamp option provides improved TCP round-trip time measurements. Because the time stamps are always sent and echoed in both directions and the time-stamp value in the header is always changing, TCP header compression will not compress the outgoing packet. To allow TCP header compression over a serial link, the TCP time-stamp option is disabled. Use the ip tcp timestamp command to enable the TCP time-stamp option.
TCP Explicit Congestion Notification
The TCP Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN) feature allows an intermediate router to notify end hosts of impending network congestion. It also provides enhanced support for TCP sessions associated with applications, such as Telnet, web browsing, and transfer of audio and video data that are sensitive to delay or packet loss. The benefit of this feature is the reduction of delay and packet loss in data transmissions. Use the ip tcp ecn command in global configuration mode to enable TCP ECN.
TCP Keepalive Timer
The TCP Keepalive Timer feature provides a mechanism to identify dead connections. When a TCP connection on a routing device is idle for too long, the device sends a TCP keepalive packet to the peer with only the Acknowledgment (ACK) flag turned on. If a response packet (a TCP ACK packet) is not received after the device sends a specific number of probes, the connection is considered dead and the device initiating the probes frees resources used by the TCP connection.

QUESTION 18
A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction.
Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?

A.    latency
B.    starvation
C.    connectionless communication
D.    nonsequencing unordered packets
E.    jitter

Answer: A
Explanation:
Cisco IOS IP SLAs provides a proactive notification feature with an SNMP trap. Each measurement operation can monitor against a pre-set performance threshold. Cisco IOS IP SLAs generates an SNMP trap to alert management applications if this threshold is crossed. Several SNMP traps are available: round trip time, average jitter, one-way latency, jitter, packet loss, MOS, and connectivity tests.
Here is a partial sample output from the IP SLA statistics that can be seen:
router#show ip sla statistics 1
Round Trip Time (RTT) for Index 55
Latest RTT: 1 ms
Latest operation start time: *23:43:31.845 UTC Thu Feb 3 2005 Latest operation return code: OK
RTT Values:
Number Of RTT: 10 RTT Min/Avg/Max: 1/1/1 milliseconds Latency one-way time:
Number of Latency one-way Samples: 0
Source to Destination Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds Destination to Source Latency one way Min/Avg/Max: 0/0/0 milliseconds
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/technologies/tk648/tk362/tk920/technologies_white_paper09186a00802d5efe.html

QUESTION 19
Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?

A.    when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP
B.    when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue
C.    when WRED is enabled
D.    when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic

Answer: A
Explanation:
Mixing TCP with UDP
It is a general best practice to not mix TCP-based traffic with UDP-based traffic (especially Streaming-Video) within a single service-provider class because of the behaviors of these protocols during periods of congestion. Specifically, TCP transmitters throttle back flows when drops are detected. Although some UDP applications have application-level windowing, flow control, and retransmission capabilities, most UDP transmitters are completely oblivious to drops and, thus, never lower transmission rates because of dropping. When TCP flows are combined with UDP flows within a single service-provider class and the class experiences congestion, TCP flows continually lower their transmission rates, potentially giving up their bandwidth to UDP flows that are oblivious to drops. This effect is called TCP starvation/UDP dominance.
TCP starvation/UDP dominance likely occurs if (TCP-based) Mission-Critical Data is assigned to the same service-provider class as (UDP-based) Streaming-Video and the class experiences sustained congestion. Even if WRED is enabled on the service-provider class, the same behavior would be observed because WRED (for the most part) manages congestion only on TCP-based flows.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/QoS-SRND-Book/VPNQoS.html

QUESTION 20
PPPoE is composed of which two phases?

A.    Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase
B.    Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase
C.    Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase
D.    Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase

Answer: D

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QUESTION 11
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?

A.    access lists
B.    DTP in nonegotiate
C.    VTP pruning
D.    PBR

Answer: C
Explanation:
VTP pruning enhances network bandwidth use by reducing unnecessary flooded traffic, such as broadcast, multicast, unknown, and flooded unicast packets to only the switches that require it. VTP pruning increases available bandwidth by restricting flooded traffic to those trunk links that the traffic must use to access the appropriate network devices. By default, VTP pruning is disabled.

QUESTION 12
What effect does the mac address-table aging-time 180 command have on the MAC address-table?

A.    This is how long a dynamic MAC address will remain in the CAM table.
B.    The MAC address-table will be flushed every 3 minutes.
C.    The default timeout period will be 360 seconds.
D.    ARP requests will be processed less frequently by the switch.
E.    The MAC address-table will hold addresses 180 seconds longer than the default of 10 minutes.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You can configure the amount of time that an entry (the packet source MAC address and port that packet ingresses) remain in the MAC table. To configure the aging time for all MAC addresses, perform this task:
Command Purpose
Step 1
switch# configure
Enters configuration mode.
terminal
Step 2
switch(config)# mac-Specifies the time before an entry ages out address-table aging- and is discarded from the MAC address table. time seconds [vlan The range is from 0 to 1000000; the default is vlan_id] 300 seconds.
Entering the value 0 disables the MAC aging. If a VLAN is not specified, the aging specification applies to all VLANs. This example shows how to set the aging time for entries in the MAC address table to 600 seconds (10 minutes):
switch# configure terminal
switch(config)# mac-address-table aging-time 600

QUESTION 13
While working in the core network building, a technician accidently bumps the fiber connection between two core switches and damages one of the pairs of fiber. As designed, the link was placed into a non-forwarding state due to a fault with UDLD. After the damaged cable was replaced, the link did not recover. What solution allows the network switch to automatically recover from such an issue?

A.    macros
B.    errdisable autorecovery
C.    IP Event Dampening
D.    command aliases
E.    Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Answer: B
Explanation:
There are a number of events which can disable a link on a Catalyst switch, such as the detection of a loopback, UDLD failure, or a broadcast storm. By default, manual intervention by an administrator is necessary to restore the interface to working order; this can be done by issuing shutdown followed by no shutdown on the interface. The idea behind requiring administrative action is so that a human engineer can intercede, assess, and (ideally) correct the issue. However, some configurations may be prone to accidental violations, and a steady recurrence of these can amount to a huge time sink for the administrative staff.
This is where errdisable autorecovery can be of great assistance. We can configure the switch to automatically re-enable any error-disabled interfaces after a specified timeout period. This gives the offending issue a chance to be cleared by the user (for example, by removing an unapproved device) without the need for administrative intervention.

QUESTION 14
A network engineer deployed a switch that operates the LAN base feature set and decides to use the SDM VLAN template. The SDM template is causing the CPU of the switch to spike during peak working hours. What is the root cause of this issue?

A.    The VLAN receives additional frames from neighboring switches.
B.    The SDM VLAN template causes the MAC address-table to overflow.
C.    The VLAN template disables routing in hardware.
D.    The switch needs to be rebooted before the SDM template takes effect.

Answer: C
Explanation:
SDM Template Notes:
All templates are predefined. There is no way to edit template category individual values.
The switch reload is required to use a new SDM template.
The ACL merge algorithm, as opposed to the original access control entries (ACEs) configured by the user, generate the number of TCAM entries listed for security and QoS ACEs.
The first eight lines (up to Security ACEs) represent approximate hardware boundaries set when a template is used. If the boundary is exceeded, all processing overflow is sent to the CPU which can have a major impact on the performance of the switch. Choosing the VLAN template will actually disable routing (number of entry for unicast or multicast route is zero) in hardware.

QUESTION 15
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?

A.    VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B.    SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C.    The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D.    RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.

Answer: C
Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis.
You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources.
SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session.
You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources.
A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination.

QUESTION 16
A DHCP configured router is connected directly to a switch that has been provisioned with DHCP snooping. IP Source Guard with the ip verify source port-security command is configured under the interfaces that connect to all DHCP clients on the switch. However, clients are not receiving an IP address via the DHCP server. Which option is the cause of this issue?

A.    The DHCP server does not support information option 82.
B.    The DHCP client interfaces have storm control configured.
C.    Static DHCP bindings are not configured on the switch.
D.    DHCP snooping must be enabled on all VLANs, even if they are not utilized for dynamic address allocation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
When you enable both IP Source Guard and Port Security, using the ip verify source port- security interface configuration command, there are two caveats:
The DHCP server must support option 82, or the client is not assigned an IP address.
The MAC address in the DHCP packet is not learned as a secure address. The MAC address of the DHCP client is learned as a secure address only when the switch receives non-DHCP data traffic.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swdhcp82.html#wp1069615

QUESTION 17
A switch is added into the production network to increase port capacity. A network engineer is configuring the switch for DHCP snooping and IP Source Guard, but is unable to configure ip verify source under several of the interfaces. Which option is the cause of the problem?

A.    The local DHCP server is disabled prior to enabling IP Source Guard.
B.    The interfaces are configured as Layer 3 using the no switchport command.
C.    No VLANs exist on the switch and/or the switch is configured in VTP transparent mode.
D.    The switch is configured for sdm prefer routing as the switched database management template.
E.    The configured SVIs on the switch have been removed for the associated interfaces.

Answer: B
Explanation:
IP source guard is a security feature that restricts IP traffic on nonrouted, Layer 2 interfaces by filtering traffic based on the DHCP snooping binding database and on manually configured IP source bindings. You can use IP source guard to prevent traffic attacks caused when a host tries to use the IP address of its neighbor.
You can enable IP source guard when DHCP snooping is enabled on an untrusted interface. After IP source guard is enabled on an interface, the switch blocks all IP traffic received on the interface, except for DHCP packets allowed by DHCP snooping. A port access control list (ACL) is applied to the interface. The port ACL allows only IP traffic with a source IP address in the IP source binding table and denies all other traffic.
The IP source binding table has bindings that are learned by DHCP snooping or are manually configured (static IP source bindings). An entry in this table has an IP address, its associated MAC address, and its associated VLAN number. The switch uses the IP source binding table only when IP source guard is enabled.
IP source guard is supported only on Layer 2 ports, including access and trunk ports. You can configure IP source guard with source IP address filtering or with
source IP and MAC address filtering.
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swdhcp82.html#wp1069615

QUESTION 18
The command storm-control broadcast level 75 65 is configured under the switch port connected to the corporate mail server. In which three ways does this command impact the traffic? (Choose three.)

A.    SNMP traps are sent by default when broadcast traffic reaches 65% of the lower-level threshold.
B.    The switchport is disabled when unicast traffic reaches 75% of the total interface bandwidth.
C.    The switch resumes forwarding broadcasts when they are below 65% of bandwidth.
D.    Only broadcast traffic is limited by this particular storm control configuration.
E.    Multicast traffic is dropped at 65% and broadcast traffic is dropped at 75% of the total interface bandwidth.
F.    The switch drops broadcasts when they reach 75% of bandwidth.

Answer: CDF
Explanation:
storm-control {broad- Configure broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm control. By de- cast | multicast | uni- fault, storm control is disabled.
cast} level {level [lev-
The keywords have these meanings:
el-low] | pps pps [pps-low]}
For level, specify the rising threshold level for broadcast, multicast, or unicast traffic as a percentage (up to two decimal places) of the bandwidth. The port blocks traffic when the rising threshold is reached. The range is 0.00 to 100.00.
(Optional) For level-low, specify the falling threshold level as a percentage (up to two decimal places) of the bandwidth. This value must be less than or equal to the rising suppression value. The port forwards traffic when traffic drops below this level. If you do not configure a falling suppression level, it is set to the rising suppression level. The range is 0.00 to 100.00.
In this case, the broadcast keyword was used so only broadcast traffic is limited. http:// Reference: www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3550/software/release/12-2_25_see/configuration/guide/3550SCG/swtrafc.html

QUESTION 19
After UDLD is implemented, a Network Administrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state. Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?

A.    Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B.    UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C.    UDLD is enabled globally.
D.    UDLD timers are inconsistent.

Answer: B
Explanation:
With UDLD aggressive mode enabled, when a port on a bidirectional link that has a UDLD neighbor relationship established stops receiving UDLD packets, UDLD tries to reestablish the connection with the neighbor.
After eight failed retries, the port is disabled.

QUESTION 20
After reviewing UDLD status on switch ports, an engineer notices that the current bidirectional state for an access port is “Unknown.” Which statement describes what this indicates about the status of the port?

A.    The port is fully operational and no known issues are detected.
B.    The bidirectional status of “unknown” indicates that the port will go into the disabled state because it stopped receiving UDLD packets from its neighbor.
C.    UDLD moved into aggressive mode after inconsistent acknowledgements were detected.
D.    The UDLD port is placed in the “unknown” state for 5 seconds until the next UDLD packet is received on the interface.

Answer: A
Explanation:
By default, UDLD is disabled on all interfaces. We can enable UDLD globally on the device, or individually on specific interfaces with the command udld port. This enables UDLD in normal mode.
It would be prohibitively difficult to coordinate the configuration of UDLD on both ends of a link at the same time, so when UDLD is first enabled and does not detect a neighbor the link state is considered unknown, which is not necessarily an error condition. The port will remain operational during this time. When UDLD is finally enabled on the other end, the status will transition to bidirectional.

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QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.

%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up

What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?

A.    These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B.    The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C.    These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D.    The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E.    The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.

R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail

Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?

A.    These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B.    These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C.    These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and
172.16.1.1.
D.     These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?

A.    Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B.    The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C.    The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D.    The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command.
In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?

A.    physical
B.    data link
C.    network
D.    transport
E.    application

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)

A.    PPDIOO
B.    structured
C.    bottoms up
D.    interrupt-driven

Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two)

A.    The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B.    The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C.    The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D.    The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?

A.    Layer 5
B.    Layer 4
C.    Layer 3
D.    Layer 2
E.    Layer 1

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer
3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?

A.    The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B.    The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C.    To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D.    The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E.
This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)

A.    The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B.    The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C.    The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D.    The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
SIA routes are due to the fact that reply packets are not received. This could be caused by a router which is unable to send reply packets. The router could have reached the limit of its capacity, or it could be malfunctioning.
Notes: If a router does not receive a reply to all outstanding queries within 3 minutes, the route goes to the stuck in active (SIA) state. The router then resets the neighbors that fail to reply by going active on all routes known through that neighbor, and it re-advertises all routes to that neighbor.
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/103/eigrp3.html

QUESTION 20
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)

A.    Enable BPD guard
B.    Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C.    Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D.    Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E.    Implement port security

Answer: CD

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QUESTION 41
You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command.
Which description of the node status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true?

A.    The node is decommissioned
B.    The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet
C.    The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet
D.    The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is not configured yet

Answer: B

QUESTION 42
Which two options are purposes of a device package? (Choose two )

A.    to identify a set of network or service functions required by the application
B.    to provide a leaf and spine devices with operating systems and firmware
C.    to provide a Cisco APIC with information about device specifics
D.    to render the services required by a graph
E.    to manage a class of service devices

Answer: CE

QUESTION 43
You have a network that has three subnets. You migrate the network to a Cisco ACI fabric.
You want to bridge the three subnets without changing the IP addresses of the endpoints.
The default gateway for the endpoints does not sit on the ACI fabric.
Which action must you take to keep the three subnets in a single Hood domain?

A.    Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing disabled within the same EPO Connect the existing subnets to the bridge domains
B.    Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing disabled and connect the existing subnets to the bridge domain
C.    Create one bridge domain that has unicast routing enabled and create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domain Connect the existing network to the bridge domain
D.    Create multiple bridge domains that have unicast routing enabled within the saw EPG Create corresponding subnets inside the bridge domains and connect the existing network to the bridge domains.

Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which statement accurately describes Cisco ACI flooding mode for unknown unicast traffic?

A.    By default unknown unicast traffic floods the bridge domain
B.    By default, all unknown unicast traffic is dropped
C.    A hardware proxy must be used for flooding mode
D.    By default, an unknown unicast traffic is sent to the spine proxy

Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Refer to the exhibit. You are verifying connectivity within a leaf device.
You attempt to connect to a destination server in VLAN 17, and you then run the show mac address-table command as shown.
Why does the show mac address-table output show a different VLAN?

A.    The wrong AEP is attached to the leaf ports
B.    The VLAN configuration on the leaf switch is incorrect
C.    The VLAN ID shown is used for identification and internal mapping within the ACI leaf
D.    When traffic appears, the Cisco ACI marks ports with VLAN 17

Answer: A

QUESTION 46
You deploy AVS for Virtual Manager integration and you add a host that has five VMNICs.
You must use VXLAN to maximize the load balancing of the traffic inside the fabric.
How many VMKNICs must you add?

A.    2
B.    3
C.    4
D.    8

Answer: C

QUESTION 47
Refer to the exhibit. You define the port profiles as shown in the exhibit, and then you assign the P10GIG port profile to interface el. Which option is the result of this configuration?

A.    The speed of the interface is 10 Gbps
B.    The speed of the interface is 1 Gbps
C.    The interface uses the maximum speed available for the physical interface.
D.    The speed of the interface is 100 GbpS

Answer: C

QUESTION 48
What occurs when you make an interface a member of an existing VRF m Cisco NX-OS?

A.    The a VRF-Aware services start to be filtered
B.    You are prompted to enter an IP address assignment
C.    All of the Layer 3 configurations are removed
D.    The state of the interface is changed to down

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://supportforums.cisco.com/document/133711/vrf-configuration-and-verification-nexus-7000

QUESTION 49
A unicast packet enters into the front panel port of a leaf switch.
The leaf switch performs a forwarding lookup for the packet destination IP address and has a miss result Assuming default configuration, which statement about what happens next is true’?

A.    The packet is sent to the forwarding proxy in the spine switch
B.    The packet is dropped on the leaf switch
C.    The packet is sent to another leaf switch within the same bridge domain
D.    The packet is flooded across the entire fabric because it is an unknown unicast.

Answer: D

QUESTION 50
Which statement about POAP licensing correctly describes temporary licensing?

A.    Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license grace-period command
B.    Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 60 days
C.    Temporary licensing is invoked by using the license Install command
D.    Temporary licensing is enabled automatically and is valid for 30 days

Answer: D

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