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QUESTION 11
Which two main things must you know about stakeholders to identify where they fall in a power grid? (Choose two.)

A.    role in company
B.    degree of influence
C.    size of budget
D.    purchasing power
E.    interest in results

Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
What are the phases of the Seven Elements framework?

A.    Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
B.    Past, Present, Future.
C.    Previous, Present, Posterior.
D.    Before, In Between, After.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which two questions are used during high level outcome selling? (Choose two.)

A.    What are the technical restrictions of business?
B.    How is progress vs. outcomes measured?
C.    How does talent architecture influence the definition of business outcomes?
D.    How are the goals of top executives achieved?
E.    What capabilities are needed to achieve the outcomes?

Answer: BE

QUESTION 14
Which option must be understood before identifying business outcome opportunities?

A.    organization chart
B.    decision-making process
C.    current technology plan
D.    customer value proposition

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which question provides the best information to use to define customer success factors?

A.    What services do you need?
B.    Which Cisco products best fit your goals?
C.    What tools are you looking for, to better measure your ROI?
D.    What are your business objectives for this project/initiative?

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Emerging trends in technology are impacting business outcomes with respect to optimization and innovation. Which are the big four emerging trends?

A.    Cloud, Industry Issues, Consumerization, IT Appliances
B.    Cloud, Mobility, Activity Based Working, Security
C.    Cloud, Social Media, Software Defined Networking, Big Data
D.    Cloud, Mobility, Analytics, Social Media

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
What are two customer goals and objectives driven by their value proposition? (Choose two.)

A.    Bring digital value to customers, suppliers, partners (ease of doing business).
B.    Reduce the sales force and customer interaction.
C.    Transform the customer experience.
D.    Reduce Operating Expenses and increase Capital Expenditures.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
The customer mindset across verticals is changing as they become more aware of technology solutions and their influence on the organization. Which three options are characteristics of this customer mindset? (Choose three.)

A.    Perspective towards technology services and solutions is same across industry verticals
B.    Less loyal to a specific vendor due to technology as a commodity and availability of service solutions
C.    Expect providers to sell products and contracts
D.    Expect measurable value in terms of business outcomes
E.    Have a greater understanding of the competitive market and service and solution providers

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 19
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?

A.    By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B.    Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C.    Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D.    Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which four options are components of the Seven Elements framework? (Choose four.)

A.    Commitment
B.    Relationship & Distribution
C.    Relationship & Communications
D.    Best Alternative
E.    Interests, Agenda & Normative
F.    Interests, Options & Legitimacy
G.    Alternatives, Opportunities & Legitimacy

Answer: ACDF

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QUESTION 11
Which statement about PEST analysis is true?

A.    Political aspects can be identified easily through surveys.
B.    Economic and social implications are relevant only with the public sector.
C.    A PEST analysis allows you to take an independent, outside-in view of factors that impact the customer’s situation.
D.    A PEST analysis often can be related directly to specific findings from the operating process analysis.

Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which option describes what a five forces model shows?

A.    industry players: suppliers, complementers, customers, and competitors
B.    a list of industry trends and drivers for total market growth
C.    the top three competitive advantages owned by each of the major suppliers
D.    an analysis of customer priorities for technology purchase decisions

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statement describes when it is a good time to apply a “use case”?

A.    You must identify how many transactions should be included in a system test cycle.
B.    You must understand the major process steps a customer wants for collaboration among
its sales force personnel.
C.    You must identify the network capacity required by a new Cisco TelePresence system.
D.    You must estimate a company’s cash flow impacts from upgrading security software to the
latest version.

Answer: B

QUESTION 14
Which step is important when you define pain points for a multidepartment business initiative?

A.    Prioritize needs and opportunities across the full scope of the departments.
B.    Ask each department to rate their priorities on a 1-10 scale of importance.
C.    Use a survey to gain feedback on service-level expectations for network infrastructure.
D.    Avoid using customer estimates of benefits since the departments are likely overstating value
and competing for funding.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which statement describes the recommended level of detail for analysis when you first identify Cisco Architectures and Smart Solutions that could meet business needs?

A.    A fine level of detail, to provide the most information for benefits determination.
B.    A high level, with focus on the major architectural or Smart Solution elements that provide significant benefit.
C.    A high level for architectures and low level of detail for Smart Solutions.
D.    There is no recommended level of detail.
Do the analysis as based on the skills and knowledge of the account team.

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
What has to be evaluated in an organization, in order to establish significant KPIs?

A.    Business Process
B.    CANVAS
C.    Capabilities
D.    Milestones

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which is the result of establishing goals, objectives and smart objectives in an organization?

A.    Measured results with KPIs
B.    An appropriate Project Management
C.    A better CANVAS
D.    A better Business Process

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which three pre-requisites are needed to have KPIs provide information regarding progress on reaching goals? (Choose three.)

A.    To have analyzed the mission
B.    To have identified the stakeholders
C.    To have defined goals
D.    To have developed a CANVAS
E.    To have established deadlines
F.    To have had follow up meetings

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 19
What information is relevant to validate the progress towards the expected results?

A.    Baseline vs actual status
B.    Metrics
C.    Simulations
D.    Strategies

Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two options are additional metrics, beyond KPIs, that can be considered to measure success? (Choose two.)

A.    Price increases.
B.    Reduced implementation timelines.
C.    Customer loyalty.
D.    Technology adoption.

Answer: BC

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QUESTION 51
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.
If machine authentication passes and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned?

A.    employee
B.    denyall
C.    guest
D.    logon
E.    no role is assigned

Answer: B

QUESTION 52
Referring to the above screen capture, if an administrator desires to change a specific AP into a Spectrum Monitor without assigning the AP to a new group, which menus could be used?

A.    Network > Controller
B.    Wireless > AP Configuration
C.    Wireless > AP Installation
D.    Advanced Services > Wireless
E.    Wizards > WIP Wizard

Answer: B

QUESTION 53
An Aruba controller can be accessed with which CLI based remote access methods?(Choose two)

A.    RSH
B.    Telnet
C.    SSH
D.    SFTP
E.    SCP

Answer: BC

QUESTION 54
In the above screen capture, the administrator notes that most of the configuration options are grayed out and have no action.
What is the cause of the problem?

A.    attempting to make global changes on a Master Controller
B.    attempting to make global changes on a Local Controller
C.    this change can only be performed via the CLI
D.    does not have the correct software license
E.    there is an error in the configuration

Answer: B

QUESTION 55
Referring to the above screen capture, on which controller can you modify APs configuration to enable ARM?

A.    Controller 10.1.10.100 only
B.    Controller 10.1.20.100 and 10.254.1.3 only
C.    All three Controllers
D.    None of the Controllers
E.    On Controllers where ARM is enabled

Answer: A

QUESTION 56
Which of the following metrics does the ARM feature use to calculate the optimal channel and power level for Access Points? (Choose two)

A.    RF Spectrum Index
B.    Priority Index
C.    Interference Index
D.    Coverage Index
E.    Frequency Index

Answer: CD

QUESTION 57
When direct consoled to an AP, what is the command sequence to factory default the AP and re-bootstrap?

A.    setenv bootstat init
B.    setenv master init, boot
C.    purge, save, boot
D.    init, save, boot
E.    printenv, purge, boot

Answer: C

QUESTION 58
Which of the following will accept named VLANs as a parameter? (Choose three)

A.    a VLAN pool
B.    User Role for single VLAN
C.    RADIUS Server attributes for role derivation
D.    Firewall session rule
E.    Port trunk configuration

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 59
An administrator is setting up a factory default controller. No new AP groups were created. When adding a WLAN SSID in the Campus WLAN wizard what AP group is available?

A.    The air-monitors AP group
B.    The logon AP group
C.    The default AP group
D.    The initial AP group
E.    The Spectrum AP group

Answer: C

QUESTION 60
The reusable Aruba Controller wizards are accessible in what way?

A.    Only on startup through the CLI
B.    Through the CLI, after the initial CLI wizard has been completed
C.    In the Web UI under maintenance.
D.    In the Web UI under configuration.
E.    Must be initialized from CLI first.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 216
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise computers.

Users are able to download applications from the Internet and install them on their computers.

You need to ensure that users can install only digitally signed applications from approved publishers.

What should you do?

A.    Create AppLocker Publisher rules.
B.    Turn on Windows SmartScreen.
C.    Enable the Check for signatures on downloaded programs option.
D.    Add publishers’ websites to the Trusted Sites zone.

Answer: A

QUESTION 217
You are a desktop support technician for your company.

You deliver new Windows 10 Enterprise laptops to the software developers. The software developers frequently use laptops to work remotely and are often disconnected from the corporate network. One of the software developers works on an application that must run on Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows 7, and Windows 10 Enterprise. The software developer needs the ability to test the application natively on each of these operating systems.

You need to provide the software developer with a way to test the application on all operating system versions on the new laptop. The software developer must be able to perform the testing while working remotely without access to corporate resources.

What should you do?

A.    Use Hyper-V to create three virtual machines that provide Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7 environments.
B.    Install the Windows PE version of Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7 on three USB drives and boot from each drive to test each operating system version.
C.    Change the compatibility mode settings of the application to Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7 before testing each operating system version.
D.    Create three virtual machines for Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7 on a company Windows Server 2012 that is running Hyper-V.

Answer: A

QUESTION 218
You support Windows 10 Enterprise desktop computers. Your company has a security policy that controls multiple settings of the desktops through the domain group policy.

The security policy recently was updated to require that access to several built-in Windows 10 Enterprise tools be prohibited to all local users on one of the desktop computers.

You need to implement this new policy.

What should you do?

A.    Configure NTFS permissions.
B.    Create a Windows To Go workspace.
C.    Configure the AppLocker policy.
D.    Enable BitLocker.

Answer: C

QUESTION 219
The computers in your company’s finance department run Windows XP Professional. These computers have multiple line of business (LOB) applications installed. You add a new Windows 10 Enterprise computer in the finance department. You discover that an application used by the finance department does not work on this computer.

You need to run the application on the new computer.

What should you do first?

A.    Install Client Hyper-V.
B.    Run Refresh your PC.
C.    Install Windows XP Mode.
D.    Create a Windows To Go workspace.

Answer: A

QUESTION 220
You support Windows 10 Enterprise tablets. The tablets have the Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.

Company policy requires that all published App-V applications be available to users only when they are connected to the company network.

You need to configure the tablets so that the company policy requirements are enforced.

What should you do?

A.    Configure mandatory profiles for tablet users.
B.    Reset the App-V client FileSystem cache on the tablets.
C.    Disable the Disconnected operation mode on the tablets.
D.    Change user permissions to the App-V applications.

Answer: C

QUESTION 221
Your company has Windows 10 Enterprise client computers.

Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) is used to deploy applications.

An App-V package named App1 is stored in C:\App1 on each computer.

You need to publish App1 on the computers.

Which two Windows PowerShell commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.    Publish-AppVClientPackage -Name App1 -DynamicUserConfigurationPath C:\App1\config.xml
B.    Add-AppVClientPackage C:\App1\config.xml
C.    Add-AppVClientPackage C:\App1\App1.appv
D.    Publish-AppVClientPackage -Name App1 -DynamicUserConfigurationPath C:\App1\App1.appv

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-desktop-optimization-pack/appv-v5/how-to-apply-the-user-configuration-file-by-using-powershell

QUESTION 222
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have five computers that run Windows 10. You are the only user who uses the computers. All of the computers are members of the same domain.

You need to ensure that you can access any file on any of the computers over the Internet.

What should you configure?

A.    account policies
B.    share permissions
C.    application control policies
D.    NTFS permissions
E.    HomeGroup settings
F.    software restriction policies
G.    Encrypting File System (EFS) settings
H.    Microsoft OneDrive

Answer: H

QUESTION 223
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details in a question apply only to that question.

You need to enable other users to establish Remote Desktop connections to your computer.

Which Control Panel application should you use?

A.    Credential Manager
B.    Sync Center
C.    System
D.    Power Options
E.    Phone and Modem
F.    RemoteApp and Desktop Connections
G.    Network and Sharing Center
H.    Work Folders

Answer: C

QUESTION 224
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Work folders are deployed.

A user named User1 has a Windows 10 Home computer that is configured to use Work Folders.

User1 connects a new removable USB drive to the computer.

User1 needs to move the Work Folders to the new drive.

What should User1 do first?

A.    From the Work Folders settings, click Manage Credentials.
B.    From Services, stop the Work Folders service.
C.    From the Work Folders settings, click Stop using Work Folders.
D.    From Services, set the BitLocker Drive Encryption Service to start automatically.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/27903/windows-10-work-folders-faq

QUESTION 225
You have an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that contains a deployment of Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1). You have a Microsoft Intune subscription that is synchronized to contoso.com by using the Microsoft Azure Active Directory Connect.

You need to ensure that you can use Configuration Manager to manage the devices that are registered to your Microsoft Intune subscription.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.    In Configuration Manager, configure the Microsoft Intune Connector role.
B.    In Microsoft Intune, create a new device enrollment manager account.
C.    In Configuration Manager, create the Microsoft Intune subscription.
D.    In Microsoft Intune, configure an Exchange Connector.
E.    Install and configure Azure Active Directory Connect.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://www.systemcenterdudes.com/configuring-sccm-2012-intune-integration/

QUESTION 226
You have 100 Windows computers that are managed by using Microsoft Intune.

You need to ensure that when a new critical update is released, the update is approved automatically and deployed to the computers within 24 hours of approval.

What should you do from the Microsoft Intune administration portal?

A.    From the Updates node, select Critical Updates, and then modify the Approval settings.
B.    From the Admin node, click Enrollment Rules, and then modify the device enrollment rules.
C.    From the Admin node, click Updates, and then create a new automatic approval rule.
D.    From the Policy node, click Compliance Policies, and then create a new compliance policy.
E.    From the Policy node, click Configuration Policies, and then create a new Windows policy.

Answer: A

QUESTION 227
Your company has a main office and a branch office. Each office contains several servers that run Windows Server 2012.

You need to configure BranchCache for the client computers in the branch office. The solution must ensure that all of the cached content is in a central location.

What should you run on each client computer?

A.    the Enable-BCDistributed cmdlet
B.    the Enable-BCHostedClient cmdlet
C.    the Enable-BCLocal cmdlet
D.    the Enable-BCHostedServer cmdlet

Answer: D

QUESTION 228
You administer a Windows 10 Enterprise computer.

The computer is configured to encrypt several folders by using a self-signed Encrypted File System (EFS) certificate.

You need to make a backup copy of the encryption keys.

What should you do?

A.    Open the Certificates console and connect to the user account certificates. Export the self-signed EFS certificate from the Trusted People folder to a Canonical Encoding Rules (CER) file.
B.    Open the Certificates console and connect to the user account certificates. Find the personal self-signed EFS certificate and export it to a Personal Information Exchange (PFX) file.
C.    Open the Certificates console and connect to the user account certificates. Export the personal self- signed EFS certificate from the Trusted Root Certification Authority folder to a Personal Information Exchange (PFX) file.
D.    Open the Certificates console and connect to the computer account certificates. Export the self-signed EFS certificate from the Trusted People folder to a Canonical Encoding Rules(CER) file.

Answer: B

QUESTION 229
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise computers that are members of an Active Directory domain.

Some volumes on the computers are encrypted with BitLocker. The BitLocker recovery passwords are stored in Active Directory. A user forgets the BitLocker password to local drive E: and is unable to access the protected volume.
You need to provide a BitLocker recovery key to unlock the protected volume.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.    Ask the user for his or her logon name.
B.    Ask the user for a recovery key ID for the protected drive.
C.    Ask the user for his or her computer name.
D.    Ask the user to run the manage-bde -protectors -disable e: command.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 230
You have a portable Windows 10 Enterprise computer.
You are creating a backup plan.
You have the following requirements:

– Automatically back up the files in your Documents folder every hour.
– Ensure that you can recover different versions of the backed-up files.
– Do not back up the Windows operating system files.

You need to configure the computer to meet the requirements.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.    Connect an external hard drive to the computer.
B.    Turn on File History.
C.    Create a volume mount point in your Documents folder.
D.    Schedule a task to create a restore point every hour.
E.    Create a recovery drive on drive C.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 231
A company has Windows 10 Enterprise client computers. Finance department employees store files in the
C:\Finance directory. File History is on.

A Finance department employee attempts to restore a file to a previous version by using File History. The file is not available to restore.

You need to establish why the file history is not available and ensure that it is available in the future.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A.    Change the File History drive.
B.    Start the Volume Shadow Copy Service.
C.    Move the file into a library.
D.    Review the File History backup log.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 232
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise computers. You have secured the computers by using BitLocker.

You have distributed a new application to the computers. Users report that file associations for ZIP archives is broken and users are unable to open ZIP files.

You need to design a solution that recovers file association. You also need to ensure that BitLocker encryption settings are maintained.

What should you do?

A.    Restore computer from the latest restore point.
B.    Modify setting in Change default settings for media or devices.
C.    Delete the HKEY CLASSES_ROOT\exefile\shell\open\command registry key.
D.    Select Reset your PC.

Answer: A

QUESTION 233
You have a computer that runs Windows 10.

You need to ensure that the next time the computer restarts, the computer starts in safe mode.

What should you use?

A.    the Restore-Computer cmdlet
B.    the Bcdedit command
C.    the Restart-Computer cmdlet
D.    the Bootcfg command

Answer: B

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QUESTION 271
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You administer an Azure subscription for your company. You plan to deploy a virtual machine (VM) to Azure.

The VM environment must provide 99.95% uptime. A single switch outage must not cause the VM environment to be unavailable VM must be offline due to installation of an update that requires a reboot.

You need to configure the environment.

Solution: Create two availability sets. Place a VM in each availability set.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A

QUESTION 272
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You administer an Azure subscription for your company. You plan to deploy a virtual machine (VM) to Azure.

The VM environment must provide 99.95% uptime. A single switch outage must not cause the VM environment to be unavailable VM must be offline due to installation of an update that requires a reboot.

You need to configure the environment.

Solution: Create an availability set and deploy two VMs in it. Ensure that the VMs are in different update and fault domains.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 273
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You administer an Azure subscription for your company. You plan to deploy a virtual machine (VM) to Azure.

The VM environment must provide 99.95% uptime. A single switch outage must not cause the VM environment to be unavailable VM must be offline due to installation of an update that requires a reboot.

You need to configure the environment.

Solution: Create an availability set with two VMs. Place the VMs in the same fault domain.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 274
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

A company plans to use Operations Management Suite (OMS) to track changes within virtual machines (VMs).

The company required that data collection occur at least every 15 minutes.

You need to recommend a solution to monitor VMs which ensures that data collection occurs at least every 15 minutes.

Solution: Monitor registry keys on Windows VMs.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 275
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
A company plans to use Operations Management Suite (OMS) to track changes within virtual machines (VMs).

The company required that data collection occur at least every 15 minutes.

You need to recommend a solution to monitor VMs which ensures that data collection occurs at least every 15 minutes.

Solution: Monitors daemons on Linux VMs.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 276
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

A company plans to use Operations Management Suite (OMS) to track changes within virtual machines (VMs).

The company required that data collection occur at least every 15 minutes.

You need to recommend a solution to monitor VMs which ensures that data collection occurs at least every 15 minutes.

Solution: Monitor files on Linux VMs.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-change-tracking

QUESTION 277
A company has an Azure subscription and plans to deploy virtual machines (VMs).

The company needs to use an Azure Active Directory Domain Services (Azure AD DS) domain with the VMs.

You need to ensure that you can join the VMs to the Azure AD DS domain.

What should you do?

A.    Place the VMs in the same resource group as a domain controller.
B.    Place the VMs on the same virtual network as the Azure AD DS domain.
C.    Create an AD DS domain controller on a VM.
D.    Create a custom domain in the Azure subscription.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-admin-guide-join-windows-vm-portal

QUESTION 278
A company has a hybrid environment. The public IP address of the on-premises environment is 40.84.199.233. The company deploys virtual machines (VMs) to Azure on different subnets.

You need to ensure that the Azure VMs can communicate with the on-premises environment.

What should you create?

A.    an Internet rule for each subnet
B.    a user defined route to 255.255.255.0/0 with a VPN gateway
C.    a user defined route to 0.0.0.0/30 with a VPN gateway
D.    a Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) route by using ExpressRoute

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/vpn-gateway/vpn-gateway-bgp-overview

QUESTION 279
You plan to use Azure Monitor with AutoScale Services. You create a URI to be used with the monitoring service.

You need to configure an alert that specifies the URI.

Which Azure Command-Line Interface (CLI) command or Azure PowerShell cmdlet should you run?

A.    New-AzureRmAlertRuleEmail
B.    azure insights logprofile add
C.    azure insights alerts actions webhook create
D.    azure insights alerts rule list

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/monitoring-and-diagnostics/insights-autoscale-to-webhook-email

QUESTION 280
You plan to implement shared storage policies.

You need to apply a policy to the appropriate resource.

What should you use?

A.    queues
B.    Recovery Services vault
C.    Premium Disk storage
D.    resource group

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/rest/api/storageservices/establishing-a-stored-access-policy

QUESTION 281
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

A company uses Azure to host virtual machines (VMs) and web apps. You have an app service named App1 that uses the Basic app service tier.

You need to ensure that diagnostic data for App1 is permanently stored.

Solution: You specify a storage account in the ServiceConfiguration.cscfg file

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

QUESTION 282
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

A company uses Azure to host virtual machines (VMs) and web apps.
You have an app service named App1 that uses the Basic app service tier.

You need to ensure that diagnostic data for App1 is permanently stored.

Solution: You specify a storage account in the Diagnostics.xml file.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No

Answer: B

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QUESTION 11
Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers.
This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?

A.    Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
B.    Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute
job
C.    Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
D.    Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company contracts with a third party to develop a new web application to process credit cards. Which of the following assessments will give the company the GREATEST level of assurance for the web application?

A.    Social Engineering
B.    Penetration Test
C.    Vulnerability Assessment
D.    Code Review

Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A security audit has uncovered that some of the encryption keys used to secure the company B2B financial transactions with its partners may be too weak.
The security administrator needs to implement a process to ensure that financial transactions will not be compromised if a weak encryption key is found.
Which of the following should the security administrator implement?

A.    Entropy should be enabled on all SSLv2 transactions.
B.    AES256-CBC should be implemented for all encrypted data.
C.    PFS should be implemented on all VPN tunnels.
D.    PFS should be implemented on all SSH connections.

Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Company Z is merging with Company A to expand its global presence and consumer base.
This purchase includes several offices in different countries.
To maintain strict internal security and compliance requirements, all employee activity may be monitored and reviewed.
Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause for a change in this practice?

A.    The excessive time it will take to merge the company’s information systems.
B.    Countries may have different legal or regulatory requirements.
C.    Company A might not have adequate staffing to conduct these reviews.
D.    The companies must consolidate security policies during the merger.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A business is currently in the process of upgrading its network infrastructure to accommodate a personnel growth of over fifty percent within the next six months.
All preliminary planning has been completed and a risk assessment plan is being adopted to decide which security controls to put in place throughout each phase.
Which of the following risk responses is MOST likely being considered if the business is creating an SLA with a third party?

A.    Accepting risk
B.    Mitigating risk
C.    Identifying risk
D.    Transferring risk

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following must be taken into consideration for e-discovery purposes when a legal case is first presented to a company?

A.    Data ownership on all files
B.    Data size on physical disks
C.    Data retention policies on only file servers
D.    Data recovery and storage

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Based on the results of a recent audit, a company rolled out a standard computer image in an effort to provide consistent security configurations across all computers.
Which of the following controls provides the GREATEST level of certainty that unauthorized changes are not occurring?

A.    Schedule weekly vulnerability assessments
B.    Implement continuous log monitoring
C.    Scan computers weekly against the baseline
D.    Require monthly reports showing compliance with configuration and updates

Answer: C

QUESTION 18
A new project initiative involves replacing a legacy core HR system, and is expected to touch many major operational systems in the company.
A security administrator is engaged in the project to provide security consulting advice.
In addition, there are database, network, application, HR, and transformation management consultants engaged on the project as well.
The administrator has established the security requirements.
Which of the following is the NEXT logical step?

A.    Document the security requirements in an email and move on to the next most urgent task.
B.    Organize for a requirements workshop with the non-technical project members, being the
HR and transformation management consultants.
C.    Communicate the security requirements with all stakeholders for discussion and buy-in.
D.    Organize for a requirements workshop with the technical project members, being the
database, network, and application consultants.

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
A small company has a network with 37 workstations, 3 printers, a 48 port switch, an enterprise class router, and a firewall at the boundary to the ISP.
The workstations have the latest patches and all have up-to-date anti-virus software.
User authentication is a two-factor system with fingerprint scanners and passwords.
Sensitive data on each workstation is encrypted.
The network is configured to use IPv4 and is a standard Ethernet network.
The network also has a captive portal based wireless hot-spot to accommodate visitors.
Which of the following is a problem with the security posture of this company?

A.    No effective controls in place
B.    No transport security controls are implemented
C.    Insufficient user authentication controls are implemented
D.    IPv6 is not incorporated in the network

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
Which of the following authentication types is used primarily to authenticate users through the use of tickets?

A.    LDAP
B.    RADIUS
C.    TACACS+
D.    Kerberos

Answer: D

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QUESTION 11
Which one of the following factors is NOT one on which Authentication is based?

A.    Type 1 Something you know, such as a PIN or password
B.    Type 2 Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card
C.    Type 3 Something you are (based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits), such as a fingerprint or retina scan
D.    Type 4 Something you are, such as a system administrator or security administrator

Answer: D
Explanation:
Authentication is based on the following three factor types:
Type 1. Something you know, such as a PIN or password
Type 2. Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card
Type 3. Something you are (Unique physical characteristic), such as a fingerprint or retina scan

QUESTION 12
The act of requiring two of the three factors to be used in the authentication process refers to:

A.    Two-Factor Authentication
B.    One-Factor Authentication
C.    Bi-Factor Authentication
D.    Double Authentication

Answer: A
Explanation:
Two-Factor Authentication refers to the act of requiring two of the three factors to be used in the authentication process.

QUESTION 13
Which type of password provides maximum security because a new password is required for each new log-on?

A.    One-time or dynamic password
B.    Congnitive password
C.    Static password
D.    Passphrase

Answer: A
Explanation:
“One-time password” provides maximum security because a new password is required for each new log-on.

QUESTION 14
What is called a password that is the same for each log-on session?

A.    “one-time password”
B.    “two-time password”
C.    static password
D.    dynamic password

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is called a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password?

A.    passphrase
B.    cognitive phrase
C.    anticipated phrase
D.    Real phrase

Answer: A
Explanation:
A passphrase is a sequence of characters that is usually longer than the allotted number for a password.

QUESTION 16
Which best describes a tool (i.e. keyfob, calculator, memory card or smart card) used to supply dynamic passwords?

A.    Tickets
B.    Tokens
C.    Token passing networks
D.    Coupons

Answer: B
Explanation:
Tokens; Tokens in the form of credit card-size memory cards or smart cards, or those resembling small calculators, are used to supply static and dynamic passwords.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following would be true about Static password tokens?

A.    The owner identity is authenticated by the token
B.    The owner will never be authenticated by the token.
C.    The owner will authenticate himself to the system.
D.    The token does not authenticates the token owner but the system.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Tokens are electronic devices or cards that supply a user’s password for them. A token system can be used to supply either a static or a dynamic password. There is a big difference between the static and dynamic systems, a static system will normally log a user in but a dynamic system the user will often have to log themselves in.

Static Password Tokens:

The owner identity is authenticated by the token. This is done by the person who issues the token to the owner (normally the employer). The owner of the token is now authenticated by “something you have”. The token authenticates the identity of the owner to the information system. An example of this occurring is when an employee swipes his or her smart card over an electronic lock to gain access to a store room.

Synchronous Dynamic Password Tokens:

This system is a lot more complex then the static token password. The synchronous dynamic password tokens generate new passwords at certain time intervals that are synched with the main system. The password is generated on a small device similar to a pager or a calculator that can often be attached to the user’s key ring. Each password is only valid for a certain time period, typing in the wrong password in the wrong time period will invalidate the authentication. The time factor can also be the systems downfall. If a clock on the system or the password token device becomes out of synch, a user can have troubles authenticating themselves to the system.

Asynchronous Dynamic Password Tokens:

The clock synching problem is eliminated with asynchronous dynamic password tokens. This system works on the same principal as the synchronous one but it does not have a time frame. A lot of big companies use this system especially for employee’s who may work from home on the companies VPN (Virtual private Network).

Challenge Response Tokens:

This is an interesting system. A user will be sent special “challenge” strings at either random or timed intervals. The user inputs this challenge string into their token device and the device will respond by generating a challenge response. The user then types this response into the system and if it is correct they are authenticated.

QUESTION 18
In Synchronous dynamic password tokens:

A.    The token generates a new password value at fixed time intervals (this password could be based on the time of day encrypted with a secret key).
B.    The token generates a new non-unique password value at fixed time intervals (this password could be based on the time of day encrypted with a secret key).
C.    The unique password is not entered into a system or workstation along with an owner’s PIN.
D.    The authentication entity in a system or workstation knows an owner’s secret key and PIN, and the entity verifies that the entered password is invalid and that it was entered during the invalid time window.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Synchronous dynamic password tokens:
The token generates a new password value at fixed time intervals (this password could be the time of day encrypted with a secret key).
The unique password is entered into a system or workstation along with an owner’s PIN. The authentication entity in a system or workstation knows an owner’s secret key and PIN, and the entity verifies that the entered password is valid and that it was entered during the valid time window.

QUESTION 19
In biometrics, “one-to-many” search against database of stored biometric images is done in:

A.    Authentication
B.    Identification
C.    Identities
D.    Identity-based access control

Answer: B
Explanation:
In biometrics, identification is a “one-to-many” search of an individual’s characteristics from a database of stored images.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following is true of biometrics?

A.    It is used for identification in physical controls and it is not used in logical controls.
B.    It is used for authentication in physical controls and for identification in logical controls.
C.    It is used for identification in physical controls and for authentication in logical controls.
D.    Biometrics has not role in logical controls.

Answer: C
Explanation:
When used in physical control biometric Identification is performed by doing a one to many match. When you submit your biometric template a search is done through a database of templates until the matching one is found. At that point your identity is revealed and if you are a valid employee access is granted.

When used in logical controls the biometric template is used to either confirm or deny someone identity. For example if I access a system and I pretend to be user Nathalie then I would provide my biometric template to confirm that I really am who I pretend to be. Biometric is one of the three authentication factor (somethin you are) that can be use. The other two are something you know and something you have.

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QUESTION 11
A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
D.    The HR department should have information security personnel who are involved in the investigation of the incident sign non-disclosure agreements so the company cannot be held liable for customer data that might be viewed during an investigation.

Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A company has recently launched a new billing invoice website for a few key vendors.
The cybersecurity analyst is receiving calls that the website is performing slowly and the pages sometimes time out.
The analyst notices the website is receiving millions of requests, causing the service to become unavailable.
Which of the following can be implemented to maintain the availability of the website?

A.    VPN
B.    Honeypot
C.    Whitelisting
D.    DMZ
E.    MAC filtering

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A cybersecurity analyst has received the laptop of a user who recently left the company.
The analyst types `history’ into the prompt, and sees this line of code in the latest bash history:

This concerns the analyst because this subnet should not be known to users within the company.
Which of the following describes what this code has done on the network?

A.    Performed a ping sweep of the Class C network.
B.    Performed a half open SYB scan on the network.
C.    Sent 255 ping packets to each host on the network.
D.    Sequentially sent an ICMP echo reply to the Class C network.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A security audit revealed that port 389 has been used instead of 636 when connecting to LDAP for the authentication of users.
The remediation recommended by the audit was to switch the port to 636 wherever technically possible.
Which of the following is the BEST response?

A.    Correct the audit. This finding is a well-known false positive; the services that typically run on 389 and 636 are identical.
B.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as encrypted services run by default on 636.
C.    Change all devices and servers that support it to 636, as 389 is a reserved port that requires root access and can expose the server to privilege escalation attacks.
D.    Correct the audit. This finding is accurate, but the correct remediation is to update encryption keys on each of the servers to match port 636.

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A security analyst is reviewing IDS logs and notices the following entry:
Which of the following attacks is occurring?

A.    Cross-site scripting
B.    Header manipulation
C.    SQL injection
D.    XML injection

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A company that is hiring a penetration tester wants to exclude social engineering from the list of authorized activities.
Which of the following documents should include these details?

A.    Acceptable use policy
B.    Service level agreement
C.    Rules of engagement
D.    Memorandum of understanding
E.    Master service agreement

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
A reverse engineer was analyzing malware found on a retailer’s network and found code extracting track data in memory.
Which of the following threats did the engineer MOST likely uncover?

A.    POS malware
B.    Rootkit
C.    Key logger
D.    Ransomware

Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team.
Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Select two.)

A.    COBIT
B.    NIST
C.    ISO 27000 series
D.    ITIL
E.    OWASP

Answer: DE

QUESTION 19
A system administrator recently deployed and verified the installation of a critical patch issued by the company’s primary OS vendor. This patch was supposed to remedy a vulnerability that would allow an adversary to remotely execute code from over the network. However, the administrator just ran a vulnerability assessment of networked systems, and each of them still reported having the same vulnerability. Which of the following if the MOST likely explanation for this?

A.    The administrator entered the wrong IP range for the assessment.
B.    The administrator did not wait long enough after applying the patch to run the assessment.
C.    The patch did not remediate the vulnerability.
D.    The vulnerability assessment returned false positives.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
An incident response report indicates a virus was introduced through a remote host that was connected to corporate resources.
A cybersecurity analyst has been asked for a recommendation to solve this issue.
Which of the following should be applied?

A.    MAC
B.    TAP
C.    NAC
D.    ACL

Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit.

You have deployed the access control configuration to the distribution switch.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

A.    All hosts connected to the access switch require authentication to access the network.
B.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network after one host authenticates.
C.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network without authentication.
D.    Only the first host to authenticate will have access to the network, other hosts will be blocked.

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Click the Exhibit.

Referring to the exhibit, traffic from User-1 is being forwarded to Server-1 with DSCP values that must be written. You must maintain the rewritten DSCP values throughout the network.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1.
B.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1 and R4.
C.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1, R2, and R3.
D.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R4.

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Click the Exhibit.

You are adding a Junos Fusion satellite device but one cascade port is not coming on line.

Referring to the exhibit, what would cause this problem?

A.    The satellite device is not an EX4300.
B.    The cascade ports need to be on the same line card.
C.    The FPC number must match the FPC connecting to the satellite device.
D.    Interface xe-8/2/1 is in a link down state.

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
In Layer 2 environment where 802.1X is deployed with its default parameters on EX Series, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from authenticator to the authentication server.
B.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is denied by default through the authenticator.
C.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from the supplicant to the authentication server.
D.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is permitted by default through the authenticator.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
Click the Exhibit.

Your network is experiencing congestion across the link between R2 and R3. You must make changes to alleviate traffic congestion from R3 to R2.

Referring to the exhibit, which two commands would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    [edit protocol ospf]
user@R1# set reference-bandwidth 10g
B.    [edit protocol ospf]
user@R3# set reference-bandwidth 10g
C.    [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
user@R1# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5
D.    [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
user@R3# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5

Answer: BD

QUESTION 36
Which two statements are correct about using LLDP on junos devices? (Choose two)

A.    LLDP operates on layer 2 and layer 3 interfaces
B.    LLDP can interoperate with the cisco discovery protocol CDP
C.    LLDP is enabled on all devices by default
D.    LLDP operates on layer 2 interfaces

Answer: AC

QUESTION 37
You have certainly implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.
What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?

A.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID Under the pvlan-200 on the AS2
B.    switch You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS1 AS THE VPLAN on both switches
C.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the VLAN 200 ON both switches
D.    You must configure the ge-0/012 interface on both switches as P VLAN trunks

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which two statements is true regarding the next hop attribute? (Choose two)

A.    it is not changed when sent across EBGP sessions
B.    it is changed to self for IBGP routes learned from EBGP
C.    it is not changed for IGBP routes learned from EBGP
D.    it is Changed by default when sent across EBGP sessions

Answer: CD

QUESTION 39
Your enterprise network is providing layer 2 connectivity between remote-sites using Q-in- Q tunneling. A customer wants to ensure their connection through your network is also participating in their spanning free topology. In this scenario, which solution must be used?

A.    you must configure the Q in Q tunnel to use L2PT to tunnel STP packets
B.    you must configure the same isolation ID on both sides of the tunnel
C.    you must configure spanning tree on the interfaces connected to the customers sites
D.    you must configure spanning tree to tunnel packets

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
You want to deploy MSTP with multiple regions. Each region should have a unique root bridge to accommodate a set of VLANs. Which three configuration elements must watch on switches participating in this deployment scenario? (Choose three)

A.    MSTI toVLAN mapping
B.    revision level
C.    CST BPDU parameters
D.    configuration name
E.    bridge priority

Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 11
You create a workflow that automatically sends an email when a condition is met.
The staff reports that emails are not been sent as expected.
You need to correct the issue. What should you do?

A.    Export the workflow.
B.    Publish the workflow.
C.    Set the workflow to required.
D.    Activate the workflow.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are implementing a new business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You specify a name and the primary intent for the BPF, and define the stages and conditions.
You need to configure the composition.
Which two options can you configure? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Dialogs
B.    Workflows
C.    Steps
D.    Actions

Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records.
Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    The scope was set to Account.
B.    The scope was set to Entity.
C.    A business rule snapshot was successful.
D.    A business rule is active.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process.
You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Step Required
B.    Check Conditions
C.    Wait Conditions
D.    Step Display Names
E.    Data Fields

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You have an environment that includes Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Exchange Online.
Email messages between Microsoft Dynamics and Exchange are synchronizing correctly.
You need to ensure that appointments, contacts, and tasks are synchronized.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use server side synchronization.
B.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
C.    Connect Microsoft Dynamics 365 to POP3/SMTP servers.
D.    Set up the email router.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?

A.    ISV Extensions
B.    Execute Workflow Job
C.    Act on behalf of another user
D.    Browse Availability

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license.
You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?

A.    Microsoft OneNote integration
B.    Microsoft OneDrive integration
C.    Microsoft Share Point integration
D.    Microsoft Office 365 groups

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?

A.    Business Management
B.    Missing Entities
C.    Custom Entities
D.    Customization

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Users need to be able to embed Microsoft Power Bl visuals into personal dashboards. What should you do?

A.    Enable server-based integration with Power Bl.
B.    Add Power Bl as a report category.
C.    Enable Power Bl visualization embedding.
D.    Grant users Power Bl reporting permissions.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You enable folder-level tracking functionality for all users. A user named User1 creates a folder named Dynamics 365 underneath her in box.
User1 moves emails into the Dynamics 365 folder. User1 reports that the emails are not being tracked.
You need to resolve the issue. What should you do?

A.    Ensure that the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook client is installed.
B.    Configure server-side synchronization for Microsoft Exchange.
C.    Ensure that Microsoft Exchange rules are created.
D.    Instruct the user to create a folder tracking rule.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 11
You department manger wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month.
However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer present a complete solution.

A.    sub ledger
B.    customer
C.    payment schedule
D.    free text

Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
You are the accounts payable manager for your company.
Your company’s agreement with a supplier stipulates that when you buy quantity of more than 100 HDMI cable (product A0001) your order will be discounted by 8 percent.
You need configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade to fulfill this requirement.
What shouldyou do?

A.    Set up a Purchase agreement for the vendor, select the Product value commitment, specify the value of 101 items at the regular price, and then add a discount of 8%.
B.    Set up a Purchase agreement for the vendor, select the Product quantity commitment type, and then add a line for the appropriate items with a quantity of 101 and an 8% discount.
C.    Set up a Line discount trade agreement journal, select the appropriate vendor and item combination, and then enter and 8% for Discount percentage and a minimum quantity of 101.
D.    Set up a Total discount trade agreement journal, select the appropriate vendor and item combination, and then enter and 8% FOR Discount percentage 1 field.

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are purchasing agent.
Your company agrees on a purchase price with a supplier. You create a purchase agreement.
Which two tasks can you perform with the agreement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Create a release order when no commitment is defined for quantity of a product.
B.    Create purchase agreements based on quality or weight.
C.    Define a validity period for the purchase agreement.
D.    Put purchase agreements on hold during order.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 14
You create and post a payment journal with a method of payment that is configured with bridging accounts.
The bank notifies you that the payment has cleared the account.
What should you do next?

A.    Create a general journal, and use the Bridged transactions feature to select and move the payment to a Bank account.
B.    Create a general journal with an offset account for the correct bank and use the Settlement feature to select the Bridged transactions to clear.
C.    Create a general journal adding lines to debit the bridging account and credit the bank account, then use bank transaction feature to mark the journal lines for settlement.
D.    Create a general journal adding lines to debit the bridging account and credit the bank account, then use bank reconciliation feature to settle the Bridged transaction with the bank transaction.

Answer: C

QUESTION 15
You are an order processor at Contoso, Ltd.
You create new sale s order for a wholesale company. Later, the sales manager at Contoso, Ltd for the wholesales account informs you that their company has a sales agreements for a 10 percent discount on apparel items.
You need to ensure that the discount is applied correctly to the order and that the order update the fulfillment of the sales agreement.

A.    Put the sales order on hold, and then create a release from the sales agreement.
B.    Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Price details option under the Sales order line button on the sales order.
C.    Delete the sales order, and these create a new sale order by using the Copy from journal function.
D.    Update the existing sales order lines to link to the sales agreement by using the Create link option under the Update line button on the sales order.

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
You need to explain the new sales quotation process to your sales team.
You want to cover the items that are included in the basic quotation to the customer.
Which three items are included in a quotation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    trade agreements
B.    sales agreements
C.    discounts
D.    taxes and surcharges
E.    direct delivery

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 17
You are the accounts payable manage for your company.
You and the vendor agree that defective items will be returned with a reference to the original purchase order.
You need to create a vendor credit note.
What are three methods that can be used? Each correct answer presents part at vie solution.

A.    Copy the original purchase invoice.
B.    Create a purchase order with the purchase type blanket order.
C.    Create a purchase order with the purchase type journal.
D.    Create a purchase order with the purchase type returned order.
E.    Create a purchase order line for a negative quantity.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 18
You work for a dairy company that is buying, selling, and packaging milk products.
Each finished milk product is tracked in the inventory by physical quantity of milk containers.
The raw milk is purchased by the gallons but is consumed in the BOM,s and formulas by the pound.
You need to configured the unit of measure conversion for the product
What should you do?

A.    Create two different item numbers on with the unit of measure set to pounds and the other set to gallons.
Then, create transfers between the items when you need to purchase or consume the items.
The system will automatically convert the units during the transfer.
B.    Create on item number, Create an intra-unit conversion on the product to convert the pounds to gallons.
The system will automatically convert the values based on the unit of measure specified on the transaction.
C.    Create one item number with two different configuration set-one pounds and the othergallons.
The create transfer between the configuration when you need to purchase or consume the items.
The system will automatically convert the units during the transfer.
D.    Create one item number. Create an inter unit conversion on the product to convert the pounds to gallons.
The system will automatically convert the values based on the unit of measure specified on the transactions.

Answer: D

QUESTION 19
You are an accounts payable coordinator.
You want to track the fees paid on transport for various items purchased form a vendor.
What should you do?

A.    Create item charges groups.
B.    Create delivery charges groups.
C.    Create charge codes.
D.    Create vendor charges groups.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You create a purchase requisition workflow to control the process.
What are two activities that happen during this process? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    submitting the purchase order to the vendor
B.    submitting the purchase requisition
C.    create a purchase order
D.    approval of the purchase requisition.

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 11
You are setting up sales tax on sales order for you customer.
You need to define the setup so that it calculates as follows:

A.    Define “Origin” under ” Calculation parameter” on the sales tax code as “Percentages on sales tax”.
B.    Define “Calculation method” under “Calculation parameter” on the sales tax code as “Whole amount”.
C.    Define three sales tax codes. One for each tax rate.
D.    Define “Calculation method” under “Calculation parameter” on the sales tax code as “Inter-val”

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are creating a new budget plan and want to allocate the budget plan lines from the source budget plan scenario in the parent budget plan to the destination scenario in the associated budget plans.
Which allocation method should you use?

A.    Allocate across periods
B.    Use ledger allocation rule
C.    Distribute
D.    Aggregate

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://ax.help.dynamics.com/en/wiki/budget-planning-data-allocation/

QUESTION 13
You need to create recurring free text invoice template.
Which three recurrence patterns are available in the Recurring invoices form on the customer record? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Monthly
B.    Weeldy
C.    Yearly
D.    Quarterly
E.    Hourly

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh209471.aspx

QUESTION 14
You are an account manager. At the end of each month when you close an account, you are required to make the same entry with the same account numbers and currency amounts.
You want to make the process quicker so that each month, you process the journal and post it with the appropriate ac-counting date.
What should you create?

A.    Voucher template
B.    Ledger accruals
C.    Periodic journal
D.    Ledger allocation rules

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Two vendors contact you and request that you send all purchase confirmations to a specific email address.
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX to automatically send the email to the vendors.
What should you do?

A.    Add the email address into the default print management settings in the Accounts payable module.
B.    Add the email address to the vendor’s Contact form, and then select the primary contact person on the Vendor details form.
C.    Add the email address to the contact information section of the Vendor details form, and then mark it as the primary record.
D.    Add the email address to the print management settings for the vendor account.

Answer: C

QUESTION 16
How is the exchange rate for the default currency set up to specify the equivalent of 100 units of the foreign currency?

A.    Specify the Express exchange rate as 100 in the General ledger parameters form.
B.    Specify the Express exchange rate as 1*100 in the General ledger parameters form.
C.    Specify the Express exchange rate as 100 against each foreign currency in the Exchange rates form.
D.    The exchange rate for the default currency can be specified only with the equivalent of one unit of the foreign currency.

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two documents can you use to set up fixed asset acquisitions? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Free text invoice
B.    Invoice journal
C.    Sales order
D.    Purchase order

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa573194.aspx

QUESTION 18
You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules.
When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed?

A.    the dimensions on the transfer
B.    the amount of the transfer
C.    the date of the transfer
D.    the employee requesting the transfer

Answer: A
Explanation:
In budget transfers rules form, you can define budget transfer rules to determine when budget transfers are allowed between financial dimension values.

QUESTION 19
Your bank requires that you send prenotes (zero dollar transactions) to the bank to verify data.
You need to set up the cash and back management module to allow the creation of prenotes.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Set “Allow copies of payments” in the Cash and bank management parameters to Yes.
B.    Set “Activate prenotes” in the Bank accounts to Yes.
C.    Set “Allow prenote creation on inactive bank accounts” in the Cash and bank management parameters to Yes.
D.    Set “Prenotes” required in the Bank accounts to Yes.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh242764.aspx

QUESTION 20
You are the accounts payable manager in a European subsidiary of your company.
Your company purchases goods from a vendor that is not located in Europe.
The vendor did not charge sales tax on the invoice but the customs office sends an invoice because the goods crossed the border and the company declared them at customs.

A.    Report sales tax on the imported goods.
B.    Report withholding sales tax on the imported goods.
C.    Report conditional sales tax on the imported goods
D.    Report sales tax exemption on the imported goods.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 11
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a new solution, and you need to usea custom icon.

What should you create to add this icon to the solution?

A.    a reference to the icon in the project
B.    an Image folder, and then add the icon
C.    a tile item in the model
D.    a resource item in the model

Answer: D
Explanation:
Resources enable management of the pictures, icons, and other visual representations for elements thatare used within the user interface.

QUESTION 12
A junior programmer asks you to review an order of operator precedence so that a math operation evaluates appropriately.

Which list is ordered correctly?

A.    unary, multiplicative, additive, logical, relational
B.    shift, relational, additive, unary, logical
C.    unary, multiplicative, additive, relational, logical
D.    equality, multiplicative, additive, relational, unary

Answer: C

QUESTION 13
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer who is creatinga new module in a solution. Aspart of the solution, you create a new menu.

You need the menu to appear in the list of modules available on the navigation pane.

What should you do to achieve this goal?

A.    Create an extension of the MainMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
B.    Create an extension of the NavPaneMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
C.    Create an extension of the CommonMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.
D.    Create an extension of the StartPageMenu menu, and add a menu reference to the new menu.

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
You are developing a solution to insert and update records in a table named Table1, and you need to ensure that you handle the possible exceptions. Table1 does not have any unique indexes that include the ID or the Description fields.

The table has the following structure:

What is the output of the X++ code?

A.    Max value
DDEerror
Data error
B.    Break
C.    Data error_RC
D.    Max value
DDEerror
Error has occurred

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a solution that extends the

Commerce Runtime (CRT) to handle new requests for an app deployed to tablets and cell phones.

You are in the developer topology and need to troubleshoot an error and check for events.

Under which event log in Event Viewer should you look to see the events?

A.    Commerce-RetailServer
B.    Commerce-OnlineStore
C.    Commerce-LoggingProvider
D.    Commerce-ModernPos

Answer: D
Explanation:
Commerce-RetailServer?This log contains events that are logged by the Retail Server components.
Commerce-ModernPos?This log contains events that are logged byRetail Modern POS. These eventsinclude events from the TypeScript and C# (CRT) layer. Commerce-LoggingProvider?This log contains events that are loggedby all other Retail componentsthat aren’t included in the list earlier in this article.

QUESTION 16
You have built a package to deploy retail modifications into a source environment for multiple models.

What is a result of building this package?

A.    Build artifacts are removed from the previous build.
B.    The .NET module that contains the element is incorporated.
C.    Only recently changed objects are rebuilt.
D.    Only the elements for the current project are built.

Answer: A
Explanation:
“Copy and publish build artifacts” uploads the deployable package to VSTS artifacts location.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/perf-test/continuous-build-testautomation

QUESTION 17
You are working for a client in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations. You design and build acustom package, and upload it to the Asset library in Lifecycle Services (LCS).
You need to apply the custom package to the client’s Tier 2 environment for testing by generating a runbook.

Which two files are required to generate the runbook? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    the topology data file
B.    the development installation service model data file
C.    the hotfix installation information file
D.    the service model file

Answer: AD
Explanation:
Runbook?The deployment runbook is a series of steps that is generated and used to apply the
deployable package to the target environment. Some of the steps are automated, and some are manual.
AXUpdateInstaller enables these steps to be run one at a time and in the correct order. AXUpdateInstaller.exe generate -runbookid=[runbookID] -topologyfile= [topologyFile] -servicemodelfile=[serviceModelFile] -runbook Here is an explanation of the parameters that are used in this command:
[runbookID]?A parameter that is specified by the developer who applies the deployable package.
[topologyFile]?The path of the DefaultTopologyData.xml file. [serviceModelFile]?The path of the DefaultServiceModelData.xml file. [runbookFile]?The name of the runbook file to generate (for example, AOSRunbook.xml).

QUESTION 18
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer, and you are reviewing the code in a solution.

During the code review, you see the following:

using (var sr = new System.IO.StreamReader(_inputFilename))
{
var textFromFile = sr.ReadToEnd();
this.processFileDate(textFromFile);
}

Which two statements about the sr and textFromFile variables are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    The variables storing .Net Framework objects have to be declared using the var keyword.
B.    The var keyword indicates the variables can store values of any type.
C.    The variables are valid within the block of code in which they were declared.
D.    The var keyword infers the type of the variables from their initialization expression.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
You need to troubleshoot an issue by using the Async sync library.

Where should you go to access this library?

A.    Real Time Service
B.    Reatil Server
C.    Retail Modern POS
D.    Channel Database

Answer: C
Explanation:
Retail modern POS includes the Async library which downloads any available data packages and insertsthem into the offline database.

QUESTION 20
You have previously written a PurchOrderActivation class with the following logic:

class PurchOrderActivation
{
private static PurchOrderActivation construct()
{
return new PurchOrderActivation();
}
…
}

You need to instantiatePurchOrderActivationfrom a new class named PurchOrderActivationExtended, which extendsPurchOrderActivation.

What are two possible ways to instantiate thePurchOrderActivationclass in the initialize method of the PurchOrderActivationExtendedclass? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
PurchOrderActivation purchOrderActivation =
PurchOrderActivation::construct();
}
}
B.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
var purchOrderActivation = new PurchOrderActivation(); }
}
C.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
var purchOrderActivation = PurchOrderActivation::construct(); }
}
D.    class PurchOrderActivationExtended extends PurchOrderActivation {
public void initialize()
{
PurchOrderActivation purchOrderActivation = new PurchOrderActivation ();
}
}

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 11
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

Answer: A
Explanation:
Reservationsare permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.

QUESTION 12
A network technician needs to configure a port on a switch to provide connectivity and electrical support to a WAP being installed in a warehouse. Which of the following features needs to be configured on the switch?

A.    STP
B.    PoE
C.    VTP trunking
D.    Port forwarding

Answer: B
Explanation:
Power over Ethernet or PoE describes any of several standardized or ad-hoc systems which pass electrical power along with data on Ethernet cabling. This allows a single cable to provide both data connection and electrical power to devices such as wireless access points or IP cameras.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following reasons would MOST likely be used to implement QoS and traffic shaping solutions?

A.    Redundancy
B.    Fault tolerance
C.    Unified communications
D.    Uptime requirements

Answer: C
Explanation:
In unified communication video,voice,data have only one end gateway so to give priority to avoid delay in voice and video we use Qos.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following uses SSL encryption?

A.    SMTP
B.    FTP
C.    HTTPS
D.    SNMP

Answer: C
Explanation:
HTTPSis the result of simply layering the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) on top of the SSL/TLS protocol, thus adding the security capabilities of SSL/TLS to standard HTTP communications.

QUESTION 15
Users notice a problem with their network connectivity when additional lights are turned on. Which of the following would be the cause for this problem?

A.    DDOS
B.    Cross talk
C.    Open short
D.    EMI

Answer: D
Explanation:
External Machine Interface (EMI), an extension to Universal Computer Protocol (UCP), is a protocol primarily used to connect to short message service centres (SMSCs) for mobile telephones.

QUESTION 16
Ann, a network technician, has been troubleshooting a connectivity problem in the LAN room. Ann has diagnosed the problem and implemented a solution. Which of the following would be the NEXT step?

A.    Test the theory
B.    Establish a plan of action
C.    Establish a theory
D.    Document findings

Answer: D
Explanation:
As to prove the cause of problem documents need to be attached so document finding is the first step after we implemented and diagnosed that problem.

QUESTION 17
A network technician is troubleshooting a user’s connectivity problem, and has determined a probable cause. The technician is at which step in the troubleshooting methodology?

A.    Verify full system functionality
B.    Identify the problem
C.    Establish a theory
D.    Implement the solution

Answer: C
Explanation:
Establish a theory means to correlate the finding and cause of a problem in order to fix the problem.

QUESTION 18
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?

A.    Router
B.    NIC
C.    Switch
D.    DHCP server

Answer: C
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.

QUESTION 19
In a SOHO environment, placing a VoIP unit on the outside edge of a LAN router enhances which of the following network optimization methods?

A.    Load balancing
B.    Quality of service
C.    Fault tolerance
D.    Traffic shaping

Answer: B
Explanation:
In unified communication video, voice, data have only one end gateway so to give priority to avoid delay in voice and video we use Qos.

QUESTION 20
The network support team is constantly getting calls from users in a specific area of an office building. The users are able to connect to the office wireless network, but they sometimes disconnect or experience very slow download speeds. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?

A.    Incorrect service set identifier
B.    Low signal strength or interference
C.    Incorrect encryption scheme
D.    Incorrect IP address or subnet mask

Answer: B
Explanation:
This generally happens when the signals are weak in any particular area and any movement can make you lose connectivity to the internet. In this case you can try to increase the radio power so that the signal strength can be increased.

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QUESTION 11
Which two features provide physical path resiliency from a Windows 2016 server to an iSCSI LUN on a 12-node ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

A.    broadcast domains
B.    MPIO
C.    failover groups
D.    ALUA

Answer: BD
Explanation:
Microsoft Multipath I/O (MPIO) is a Microsoft-provided framework that allows storage providers to develop multipath solutions that contain the hardware-specific information needed to optimize connectivity with their storage arrays. These modules are called device- specific modules (DSMs). The concepts around DSMs are discussed later in this document.
MPIO is protocol-independent and can be used with Fibre Channel, Internet SCSI (iSCSI), and Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interfaces in Windows Server.
Asymmetric Logical Unit Access (ALUA), also known as Target Port Groups Support (TPGS), is a set of SCSI concepts and commands that define path prioritization for SCSI devices.
https://kb.netapp.com/support/s/article/ka21A0000000d32QAA/asymmetric-logical-unit-access-alua-support-on-netapp-storage-frequently-asked-questions?language=en_US

QUESTION 12
Click the exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement about the volume move process is true?

A.    Client access to the volume is blocked during this phase of operation.
B.    The initial replication phase sent 39 MB from the source to the destination location.
C.    Client access is being redirected to the destination location during this phase of the operation.
D.    The cutover process failed and is in a holding pattern before being attempted again.

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Click the Exhibit button. While reviewing the port health shown in the exhibit, you notice that port e0c on node1 is degraded.

What would cause this problem?

A.    The port is not plugged into a switch.
B.    The port is in the wrong broadcast domain.
C.    The port does not have an IP address.
D.    The port has been flapping.

Answer: B
Explanation:
L2 reachability health monitor: Monitors whether all ports configured in the same broadcast domain have L2 reachability to each other.
This health monitor reports L2 reachability issues in all IPspaces; however, it marks only the ports in the cluster IPspace as degraded.

QUESTION 14
You have a read-only volume that needs protection within the cluster, but you do not have a SnapMirror license.
Which mirror type would you use to protect the volume?

A.    DP
B.    LS
C.    TDP
D.    XDP

Answer: B
Explanation:
A load-sharing mirror reduces the network traffic to a FlexVol volume by providing additional read-only access to clients.
You can create and manage load-sharing mirrors to distribute read-only traffic away from a FlexVol volume.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1368017/html/GUID-4931A901-D6D0-458B-8D3A-A92427FDD8B8.html

QUESTION 15
Click the exhibit button.

Referring to the exhibit, you have a FlexGroup volume that is 250 TB with 10 constituents.
You apply the volume modify -vserver fg1_vs -volume fg1 -size 350TB command.
What affect does the command have on the FlexGroup volume and its constituents?

A.    It grows the FlexGroup volume to 600 TB by adding 14 new constituents.
B.    It grows the FlexGroup volume to 350 TB by adding four new constituents
C.    It grows the FlexGroup volume to 350 TB by increasing the size of each constituent to 35 TB.
D.    It grows the FlexGroup volume to 600 TB by increasing the size of each constituent to 60 TB.

Answer: C
Explanation:
If you want to add more space, you can increase the FlexGroup volume collective size. Increasing the size of the FlexGroup volume resizes the existing constituents of the FlexGroup.
If you want to increase the capacity by resizing the existing constituents then use the command:
volume modify -vserver vserver_name -volume fg_name -size new_size
http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.pow-fg-mgmt%2FGUID-79766621-ECFF-4A1A-A218-197BB73E985B.html

QUESTION 16
A customer has created an SVM in an 8-node cluster with only FC licensed on all nodes.
The customer wants to limit the number of paths visible to each host.
Which three technologies accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

A.    virtual SANs (VSANs) for all FC target ports to segment specific virtual ports in mapping to the application servers
B.    SLM to limit the paths from each node to the appropriate application servers
C.    FC switch zoning of a subset of the target ports to each application server’s HBAs
D.    port sets to limit the paths from each node to the appropriate application servers
E.    multipathing to limit the access to the LUNs from each host

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
You can use FC switch zoning, portsets, and Selective LUN Map (SLM) to limit the number of paths between hosts and LUNs in configurations with multiple target ports connected to the same fabric.
https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1636036, page 20

QUESTION 17
Click the Exhibit button.

You are receiving reports of high storage latency from the database administrators. The NetApp storage system is connected to the network using 10 Gb.
You run the sysstat command as shown in the exhibit.
In this scenario, why is storage latency high?

A.    The system does not have enough cache.
B.    The system is experiencing a disk bottleneck.
C.    The CPU usage is too high.
D.    The network interfaces are maximized out.

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Click the Exhibit button. The size of the aggr1 RAID group shown in the exhibit is 8.

What is the RAID type?

A.    RAID-TEC
B.    RAID-DP
C.    RAID4
D.    RAID0

Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which CLI command is used to move epsilon to a new node?

A.    cluster modify
B.    cluster identity modify
C.    cluster setup
D.    storage failover takeover

Answer: A
Explanation:
Reassigning epsilon to another node in the cluster. Only one node in the cluster can hold epsilon. Epsilon gives the holding node an extra fractional voting weight in the quorum.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196798/html/GUID-5FAA5445-0872-400B-B7AD-B27CEE3D770A.html

QUESTION 20
You have a FlexVol volume with LUNs and need to set policies to prevent an ENOSPC error on the host.
In this scenario, which two commands will keep the LUN available to the host? (Choose two.)

A.    volume autosize
B.    snapshot autodelete
C.    snapshot delete
D.    volume size

Answer: BC
Explanation:
ENOSPC is a UNIX operating system error that sometimes returns the message Not enough space is available to service your request.” The error message occurs because of a shortage of file system space or lack of available media blocks.
You can delete Snapshot copies manually, or automatically by enabling the Snapshot autodelete capability for the volume.
Define and enable a policy for automatically deleting Snapshot copies by using the volume snapshot autodelete modify command.
You can use the snap delete command to delete a Snapshot copy before the preset interval to free disk space or because it is a manual Snapshot copy that is no longer needed but is not going to be automatically deleted.
Note: We get ENOSPC errors because Data ONTAP lets the Snapshot copy grow into the volume space. Every write in WAFL is a write to a new block. If an old block is part of a Snapshot copy, Data ONTAP needs to preserve the old block and the new changed block. This is not a problem specific to NetApp. Every storage vendor who supports a snapshot feature has to deal with it. There are two options when there is no space to accommodate the Snapshot copies:
https://community.netapp.com/fukiw75442/attachments/fukiw75442/backup-and-restore-discussions/5980/1/tr-3633.pdf

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QUESTION 11
Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS-based.
B.    Proxy-based.
C.    Flow-based.
D.    URL-based.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
Which web filtering inspection mode inspects DNS traffic?

A.    DNS-based.
B.    FQDN-based.
C.    Flow-based.
D.    URL-based.

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which statements are correct regarding URL filtering on a FortiGate unit? (Choose two.)

A.    The allowed actions for URL filtering include allow, block, monitor and exempt.
B.    The allowed actions for URL filtering are Allow and Block only.
C.    URL filters may be based on patterns using simple text, wildcards and regular expressions.
D.    URL filters are based on simple text only and require an exact match.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 14
Which of the following regular expression patterns make the terms “confidential data” case insensitive?

A.    [confidential data]
B.    /confidential data/i
C.    i/confidential data/
D.    “confidential data”

Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which statements are correct regarding application control? (Choose two.)

A.    It is based on the IPS engine.
B.    It is based on the AV engine.
C.    It can be applied to SSL encrypted traffic.
D.    Application control cannot be applied to SSL encrypted traffic.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 16
How do you configure a FortiGate to apply traffic shaping to P2P traffic, such as BitTorrent?

A.    Apply a traffic shaper to a BitTorrent entry in an application control list, which is then applied to a firewall policy.
B.    Enable the shape option in a firewall policy with service set to BitTorrent.
C.    Define a DLP rule to match against BitTorrent traffic and include the rule in a DLP sensor with traffic shaping enabled.
D.    Apply a traffic shaper to a protocol options profile.

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which statements are true regarding traffic shaping that is applied in an application sensor, and associated with a firewall policy? (Choose two.)

A.    Shared traffic shaping cannot be used.
B.    Only traffic matching the application control signature is shaped.
C.    Can limit the bandwidth usage of heavy traffic applications.
D.    Per-IP traffic shaping cannot be used.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
A static route is configured for a FortiGate unit from the CLI using the following commands:

config router static
edit 1
set device “wan1”
set distance 20
set gateway 192.168.100.1
next
end

Which of the following conditions is NOT required for this static default route to be displayed in the FortiGate unit’s routing table?

A.    The Administrative Status of the wan1 interface is displayed as Up.
B.    The Link Status of the wan1 interface is displayed as Up.
C.    All other default routes should have an equal or higher distance.
D.    You must disable DHCP client on that interface.

Answer: D

QUESTION 19
When does a FortiGate load-share traffic between two static routes to the same destination subnet?

A.    When they have the same cost and distance.
B.    When they have the same distance and the same weight.
C.    When they have the same distance and different priority.
D.    When they have the same distance and same priority.

Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Examine the static route configuration shown below; then answer the question following it.

config router static
edit 1
set dst 172.20.1.0 255.255.255.0
set device port1
set gateway 172.11.12.1
set distance 10
set weight 5
next
edit 2
set dst 172.20.1.0 255.255.255.0
set blackhole enable
set distance 5
set weight 10
next
end

Which of the following statements correctly describes the static routing configuration provided? (Choose two.)

A.    All traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 is dropped by the FortiGate.
B.    As long as port1 is up, all traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 is routed by the static route number 1. If the interface port1 is down, the traffic is routed using the blackhole route.
C.    The FortiGate unit does NOT create a session entry in the session table when the traffic is being routed by the blackhole route.
D.    The FortiGate unit creates a session entry in the session table when the traffic is being routed by the blackhole route.

Answer: AC

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QUESTION 11
After pushing a security policy from Panorama to a PA-3020 firewall, the firewall administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama’s traffic logs. What could be the problem?

A.    A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
B.    Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
C.    The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
D.    None of the firewall’s policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
A critical US-CERT notification is published regarding a newly discovered botnet. The malware is very evasive and is not reliably detected by endpoint antivirus software. Furthermore, SSL is used to tunnel malicious traffic to command-and-control servers on the internet and SSL Forward Proxy Decryption is not enabled.
Which component once enabled on a perimeter firewall will allow the identification of existing infected hosts in an environment?

A.    Anti-Spyware profiles applied outbound security policies with DNS Query action set to sinkhole
B.    File Blocking profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert
C.    Vulnerability Protection profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to block
D.    Antivirus profiles applied to outbound security policies with action set to alert

Answer: A
Explanation:
Starting with PAN-OS 6.0, DNS sinkhole is an action that can be enabled in Anti-Spyware profiles. A DNS sinkhole can be used to identify infected hosts on a protected network using DNS traffic in environments where the firewall can see the DNS query to a malicious URL.
The DNS sinkhole enables the Palo Alto Networks device to forge a response to a DNS query for a known malicious domain/URL and causes the malicious domain name to resolve to a definable IP address (fake IP) that is given to the client. If the client attempts to access the fake IP address and there is a security rule in place that blocks traffic to this IP, the information is recorded in the logs.
https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/How-to-Configure-DNS-Sinkhole/ta-p/58891

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are correct for the out-of-box configuration for Palo Alto Networks NGFWs? (Choose two)

A.    The devices are pre-configured with a virtual wire pair out the first two interfaces.
B.    The devices are licensed and ready for deployment.
C.    The management interface has an IP address of 192.168.1.1 and allows SSH and HTTPS connections.
D.    A default bidirectional rule is configured that allows Untrust zone traffic to go to the Trust zone.
E.     The interfaces are pingable.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://popravak.wordpress.com/2014/07/31/initial-setup-of-palo-alto-networks-next-generation-firewall/

QUESTION 14
A network security engineer is asked to perform a Return Merchandise Authorization (RMA) on a firewall
Which part of files needs to be imported back into the replacement firewall that is using Panorama?

A.    Device state and license files
B.    Configuration and serial number files
C.    Configuration and statistics files
D.    Configuration and Large Scale VPN (LSVPN) setups file

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
A network engineer has revived a report of problems reaching 98.139.183.24 through vr1 on the firewall. The routing table on this firewall is extensive and complex.
Which CLI command will help identify the issue?

A.    test routing fib virtual-router vr1
B.    show routing route type static destination 98.139.183.24
C.    test routing fib-lookup ip 98.139.183.24 virtual-router vr1
D.    show routing interface

Answer: C
Explanation:
This document explains how to perform a fib lookup for a particular destination within a particular virtual router on a Palo Alto Networks firewall.
1. Select the desired virtual router from the list of virtual routers configured with the command:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router <value>
2. Specify a destination IP address:
> test routing fib-lookup virtual-router default ip <ip address>
https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Learning-Articles/How-to-Perform-FIB-Lookup-for-a-Particular-Destination/ta-p/52188

QUESTION 16
Which two mechanisms help prevent a spilt brain scenario an Active/Passive High Availability (HA) pair? (Choose two)

A.    Configure the management interface as HA3 Backup
B.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA1 Backup
C.    Configure Ethernet 1/1 as HA2 Backup
D.    Configure the management interface as HA2 Backup
E.    Configure the management interface as HA1 Backup
F.    Configure ethernet1/1 as HA3 Backup

Answer: BE
Explanation:
E: For firewalls without dedicated HA ports, select two data interfaces for the HA2 link and the backup HA1 link. Then, use an Ethernet cable to connect these in-band HA interfaces across both firewalls.
Use the management port for the HA1 link and ensure that the management ports can connect to each other across your network.
B:
1. In Device > High Availability > General, edit the Control Link (HA1) section.
2. Select the interface that you have cabled for use as the HA1 link in the Port drop down menu. Set the IP address and netmask. Enter a Gateway IP address only if the HA1 interfaces are on separate subnets. Do not add a gateway if the devices are directly connected.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/60/pan-os/pan-os/high-availability/configure-active-passive-ha

QUESTION 17
What are three valid actions in a File Blocking Profile? (Choose three)

A.    Forward
B.    Block
C.    Alret
D.    Upload
E.    Reset-both
F.    Continue

Answer: BCF
Explanation:
You can configure a file blocking profile with the following actions:
Forward – When the specified file type is detected, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis. A log
is also generated in the data filtering log.
Block – When the specified file type is detected, the file is blocked and a customizable block
page is presented to the user. A log is also generated in the data filtering log.
Alert – When the specified file type is detected, a log is generated in the data filtering log.
Continue – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable response page is presented
to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. A log is also generated in
the data filtering log. Because this type of forwarding action requires user interaction, it is only
applicable for web traffic.
Continue-and-forward – When the specified file type is detected, a customizable continuation
page is presented to the user. The user can click through the page to download the file. If the
user clicks through the continue page to download the file, the file is sent to WildFire for analysis.
A log is also generated in the data filtering log.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/61/pan-os/pan-os/policy/file-blocking-profiles.html

QUESTION 18
An Administrator is configuring an IPSec VPN toa Cisco ASA at the administrator’s home and experiencing issues completing the connection. The following is th output from the command:

What could be the cause of this problem?

A.    The public IP addresses do not match for both the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA.
B.    The Proxy IDs on the Palo Alto Networks Firewall do not match the settings on the ASA.
C.    The shared secrets do not match between the Palo Alto firewall and the ASA
D.    The deed peer detection settings do not match between the Palo Alto Networks Firewall and the ASA

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Proxy IDs could have been checked for mismatch.
References: https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/IPSec-Error-IKE-Phase-1-Negotiation-is-Failed-as-Initiator-Main/ta-p/59532

QUESTION 19
Which interface configuration will accept specific VLAN IDs?

A.    Tab Mode
B.    Subinterface
C.    Access Interface
D.    Trunk Interface

Answer: B
Explanation:
You can only assign a single VLAN to a subinterface, and not to the physical interface. Each subinterface must have a VLAN ID before it can pass traffic.
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/asa/asa72/configuration/guide/conf_gd/intrface.html

QUESTION 20
Palo Alto Networks maintains a dynamic database of malicious domains.
Which two Security Platform components use this database to prevent threats? (Choose two)

A.    Brute-force signatures
B.    BrightCloud Url Filtering
C.    PAN-DB URL Filtering
D.    DNS-based command-and-control signatures

Answer: CD
Explanation:
C: PAN-DB categorizes URLs based on their content at the domain, file and page level, and receives updates from WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment every 30 minutes to make sure that, when web content changes, so do categorizations. This continuous feedback loop enables you to keep pace with the rapidly changing nature of the web, automatically.
D: DNS is a very necessary and ubiquitous application, as such, it is a very commonly abused protocol for command-and-control and data exfiltration. This tech brief summarizes the DNS classification, inspection and protection capabilities supported by our next-generation security platform, which includes:
1.    Malformed DNS messages (symptomatic of vulnerability exploitation attack).
2.    DNS responses with suspicious composition (abused query types, DNS-based denial of service attacks).
3.    DNS queries for known malicious domains. Our ability to prevent threats from hiding within DNS
The passive DNS network feature allows you to opt-in to share anonymized DNS query and response data with our global passive DNS network. The data is continuously mined to discover malicious domains that are then added to the PAN-OS DNS signature set that is delivered daily, enabling timely detection of compromised hosts within the network and the disruption of command-and-control channels that rely on name resolution.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/products/secure-the-network/subscriptions/url-filtering-pandb
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/apps/pan/public/downloadResource?pagePath=/content/pan/en_US/resources/techbriefs/dns-protection

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QUESTION 11
If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?

A.    The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D.    The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which documents does a vendor rely on to commit funding and resources to a project?

A.    SOW
B.    PO
C.    SU
D.    MOU

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A project coordinator logs potential events that can affect project constraints, and then records the results of brainstorm,TM of potential strategies.
Which of the following documents should the project coordinator use?

A.    Risk register
B.    Issue log
C.    Communication plan
D.    Status report

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes how a project is related to a program?

A.    A program is a combination of multiple projects.
B.    A program contains an element of the project.
C.    A program is a part of a project.
D.    A program uses half of the project’s budget.

Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is a key aspect of the Agile project management methodology?

A.    Test-driven
B.    Daily standup meetings
C.    Short project durations
D.    Defined list of requirements

Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are examples of organizational change? (Choose two.).

A.    Relocation
B.    Scope
C.    Business process
D.    Schedule
E.    Risk event

Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
A vendor has accepted a proposed project from a customer.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be the first document created by the project manager?

A.    Project charter
B.    Project management plan
C.    Project statement of work
D.    Project schedule

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
The PMO is responsible for: (Choose two.),

A.    managing the project plan, scope, risk, and budget.
B.    contributing expertise, deliverables, and estimates of costs.
C.    setting standards and practices for the organization and providing governance.
D.    outlining consequences of non-performance and coordinating between disparate projects
E.    approving funding, developing the project schedule, and gathering high-level requirements

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following describes risk mitigation?

A.    The transfer of the risk to another entity or project inside or outside the organization, along with associated costs
B.    The understanding of the risk with a detailed explanation of how the project intends to address the potential for occurrence
C.    The quantification of the risk in terms of how much the risk could potentially cost the project or parent organization
D.    The weighting or prioritization of the risk against all other identified risks within this project or others associated with it

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
A project manager has noticed poor attendance at status meetings. Which of the following strategies should the project manager use to improve attendance? (Choose two.)

A.    Provide an agenda before the status meeting
B.    Adhere to an agenda and scheduled time
C.    Add non-project-related items to the agenda
D.    Add and discuss new agenda items throughout the meeting.
E.    Discard the action items at the conclusion of the meeting.

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 11
You are managing a project in an organization is characterized by with rigid rules and policies and strict supervisory controls. Your project, sponsored by your CEO who is new to the company, is to make the organization less bureaucratic and more participative. You are developing your project management plan. Given the organization as it now is set up, as you prepare your plan, you can use which of the following organizational process assets______________.

A.    Guidelines and criteria
B.    Project management body of knowledge for your industry
C.    Organizational structure and culture
D.    The existing infrastructure

Answer: B
Explanation:
While you are managing a different type of project, the organization has managed projects before and therefore may have as part of its organizational process assets a project management template, which sets forth guidelines and criteria to tailor the organization’s processes to satisfy specific needs of the project.

QUESTION 12
You are fairly new to managing a project but have been a team member for many years. You are pleased you were selected to manage your company’s 2015 model line of hybrid vehicles. You are now planning your project and have been preparing the subsidiary plans as well. You realize some project documents also are required to help manage your project. An example of one that you believe will be especial helpful is the______________.

A.    Business case
B.    Key performance indicators
C.    Project management information system
D.    Project statement of work

Answer: D
Explanation:
The project statement of work is a useful document as it describes the products, services, or results the project is to deliver. It references the business need, product scope description, and the strategic plan.

QUESTION 13
You work for a telecommunications company, and when developing a project management plan for a new project, you found that you must tailor some company processes because the product is so different than those products typically produced by your company. To tailor these processes, you will follow______________.

A.    Standardized guidelines and work instructions
B.    Stakeholder risk tolerances
C.    Expert judgment
D.    Structure of your company

Answer: A
Explanation:
Standardized guidelines and work instructions are an organizational process asset to consider as the project management plan is developed. They include guidelines and criteria to tailor the organization’s set of standard processes to satisfy the specific needs of the project.

QUESTION 14
You are implementing a project management methodology for your company that requires you to establish a change control board. Which one of the following statements best describes a change control board?

A.    Recommended for use on all (large and small) projects
B.    Used to review, evaluate, approve, delay, or reject changes to the project
C.    Managed by the project manager, who also serves as its secretary
D.    Composed of key project team members

Answer: B
Explanation:
Used to review, evaluate, approve, delay, or reject changes to the project The change control board’s powers and responsibilities should be well defined and agreed upon by key stakeholders. On some projects, multiple change control boards may exist with different
areas of responsibility.

QUESTION 15
An automated tool, project records, performance indicators, data bases, and financials are examples of items in______________.

A.    Organizational process assets
B.    Project management information systems
C.    Project management planning approaches
D.    The tools and techniques for project plan development

Answer: B
Explanation:
The items listed are part of these systems, a tool and technique in both processes.
PMI®, PMBOK® Guide, 2013, 84, 92

QUESTION 16
You realize that projects represent change, and on your projects, you always seem to have a number of change requests to consider. In your current project to manage the safety of the nation’s cheese products and the testing methods used, you decided to prepare a formal change management plan. An often overlooked type of change request is______________.

A.    Adding new subject matter experts to your team
B.    Updates
C.    Work performance information
D.    Enhancing the reviews performed by your project’s governance board

Answer: B
Explanation:
Change requests may include corrective actions, preventive actions, defect repairs, or updates. Updates are changes to formally controlled project documents or plans to reflect modified or additional content.

QUESTION 17
You have been directed to establish a change control system for your company, but must convince your colleagues to use it. To be effective, the change control system must include______________.

A.    Procedures that define how project documents may be changed
B.    Specific change requests expected on the project and plans to respond to each one
C.    Performance reports that forecast project changes
D.    A description of the functional and physical characteristics of an item or system

Answer: A
Explanation:
A change control system is a collection of formal, documented procedures that define the process used to control change and approve or reject changes to project documents, deliverables, or baselines. It includes the paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary to authorize changes.

QUESTION 18
You are working on the next generation of software for mobile phones for your telecommunications company. While time to market is critical, you know from your work on other projects that management reviews can be helpful and plan to use them on your project. You are documenting them as part of your______________.

A.    Governance plan
B.    Change management plan
C.    Performance reviews
D.    Project management plan

Answer: D
Explanation:
The project management plan describes how the project will be executed and monitored and controlled. While it contains a number of subsidiary plans, it also contains other items including information on key management reviews for contents, their extent, and timing to address open
issues and pending decisions.

QUESTION 19
Your cost control specialist has developed a budget plan for your project to add a second surgical center to the Children’s Hospital. As you analyze cash flow requirements, you notice that cash flow activity is greatest in the closing phase. You find this unusual because on most projects the largest portion of the budget spent during______________.

A.    Initiating
B.    Monitoring and Controlling
C.    Controlling
D.    Executing

Answer: D
Explanation:
Executing is where the majority of the budget is spent because this is the process where all of the resources (people, material, etc.) are applied to the activities and tasks in the project management plan.
PMI®, PMBOK® Guide, 2013, 56

QUESTION 20
You are project manager for a systems integration effort and need to procure the hardware components from external sources. Your subcontracts administrator has told you to prepare a product description, which is referenced in a______________.

A.    Project statement of work
B.    Contract scope statement
C.    Request for proposal
D.    Contract

Answer: A
Explanation:
Project statement of work
The project statement of work describes in a narrative form the products, services, or results that
the project will deliver. It references the product scope description as well as the business needs and the strategic plan.

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QUESTION 11
An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?

A.    Review past security incidents and their resolution
B.    Rewrite the existing security policy
C.    Implement an intrusion prevention system
D.    Install honey pot systems

Answer: C
Explanation:
The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

QUESTION 12
A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration.
Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability?

A.    Host-based firewall
B.    IDS
C.    IPS
D.    Honeypot

Answer: B
Explanation:
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of “flavors” and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization.
IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack’s content.

QUESTION 13
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:

– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2

Answer:
Use the following answer for this simulation task.
Below table has all the answers required for this question.

Explanation:
Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule’s criteria:

Block the connection
Allow the connection
Allow the connection only if it is secured

TCP is responsible for providing a reliable, one-to-one, connection-oriented session.
TCP establishes a connection and ensures that the other end receives any packets sent.
Two hosts communicate packet results with each other. TCP also ensures that packets are decoded and sequenced properly. This connection is persistent during the session.
When the session ends, the connection is torn down.
UDP provides an unreliable connectionless communication method between hosts.
UDP is considered a best-effort protocol, but it’s considerably faster than TCP.
The sessions don’t establish a synchronized session like the kind used in TCP, and UDP doesn’t guarantee error-free communications.
The primary purpose of UDP is to send small packets of information.
The application is responsible for acknowledging the correct reception of the data.
Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with UDP.
Port 443 is used for secure web connections ?HTTPS and is a TCP port.
Thus to make sure only the Accounting computer has HTTPS access to the Administrative server you should use TCP port 443 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/24 (Accounting) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1) Thus to make sure that only the HR computer has access to Server2 over SCP you need use of TCP port 22 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/23 (HR) and 10.4.255.2 (server2)
Thus to make sure that the IT computer can access both the Administrative servers you need to use a port and accompanying port number and set the rule to allow communication between:
10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1)
10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.102 (Administrative server2)

QUESTION 14
Hotspot Question
The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.

1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.

Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.

Answer:

Explanation:
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22
Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.

QUESTION 15
Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?

A.    deny udp any any port 53
B.    deny ip any any
C.    deny tcp any any port 53
D.    deny all dns packets

Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.

QUESTION 16
A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic.
Which of the following would accomplish this task?

A.    Deny TCP port 68
B.    Deny TCP port 69
C.    Deny UDP port 68
D.    Deny UDP port 69

Answer: D
Explanation:
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn’t require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.

QUESTION 17
Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?

A.    Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B.    Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C.    Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D.    Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.

QUESTION 18
A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another?

A.    Implement a virtual firewall
B.    Install HIPS on each VM
C.    Virtual switches with VLANs
D.    Develop a patch management guide

Answer: C
Explanation:
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.

QUESTION 19
A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?

A.    The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128.
B.    The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
C.    The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
D.    The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.

QUESTION 20
Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend?

A.    Create a VLAN for the SCADA
B.    Enable PKI for the MainFrame
C.    Implement patch management
D.    Implement stronger WPA2 Wireless

Answer: A
Explanation:
VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn’t need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn’t be able to do so.

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