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QUESTION 21
A solution for the data warehouse system must be created to provide disaster recovery between SQL03 and an Azure virtual machine named SQL04.
You need to tell the research project leaders how to migrate their databases.
Which task should you instruct the leaders to use from SQL Server Management Studio?

A.    Extract Data-tier Application
B.    Deploy Database to a Microsoft Azure VM
C.    Deploy Database to a Microsoft Azure SQL Database
D.    Copy Database

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/sql-database-cloud-migrate-compatible-using-ssms-migration-wizard/
Case Study 3 – Proseware, Inc. (QUESTION 22 – QUESTION 29)
Overview
General Overview
Proseware, Inc. is a software engineering company that has 100 employees. Proseware has sales, marketing, accounts, human resources IT, and development departments.

The IT department has one team dedicated to managing the internal resources and one team dedicated to managing customer resources, which are located in the company’s hosting environment.

Proseware develops websites, basic web apps, and custom web apps. The websites and the apps are hosted and maintained in the hosting environment of Proseware.

Physical Locations
Proseware has two offices located in Seattle and Montreal. The Seattle office contains all of the hardware required to host its customers’ websites, web apps, and databases. The Seattle office contains the IT team for the hosting environment.

The Montreal office contains all of the hardware required to host the company’s internal applications, databases, and websites.

Each office connects directly to the Internet. Testing reveals that the minimum latency from the offices to Microsoft Azure is 20 ms.

Existing Environment
Internal Microsoft SQL Server Environment
Proseware uses a custom customer relationship management (CRM) application.

The internal Microsoft SQL Server environment contains two physical servers named CRM- A and CRM-B. Both servers run SQL Server 2012 Standard and host databases for the CRM application.

CRM-A hosts the principal instance and CRM-B hosts the mirrored instance of the CRM database. RM-A also hosts databases for several other applications that are used by the company’s internal applications.

CRM-A has a quad core processor and 12 GB of RAM. CRM- has a dual core processor and 8 GB of RAM.

Custom Web Applications Environment
Some Proseware customers request custom web-based applications that require more than just databases, such as SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) and CLR stored procedures.

Proseware uses a Hyper-V server named Host1. Host1 has four instances of SQL Server 2014 Enterprise in the host operating system. The instances are mirrored on a server named Host2.

Host1 also hosts four virtual machines named VM1, VM2, VM3, and VM4. VM1 has SQL Server 2005 Standard installed. VM2 has SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition installed. VM3 has SQL Server 2008 Standard Edition installed. VM4 has SQL Server 2008 R2 Standard Edition installed.

Host1 uses a SAN to store all of the data and log files for the four SQL Server instances and the four virtual machines.

Websites and Basic Web Apps Environment
Proseware has two physical servers named WebServer1 and WebData1. WebServer1 hosts basic web apps and websites for its customers. WebData1 has a database for each website and each basic web app that Proseware hosts. WebData1 has four cores and 8 GB of RAM.

Each website database contains customer information for billing purposes. Proseware generates a consolidated report that contains data from all of these databases.

The relevant databases on WebData1 are:

– CWDB: Currently 60 GB and is not expected to exceed 100 GB. CWDB contains a table named Personallinfo.
– MovieReviewDB: Currently 5 GB and is not expected to exceed 10 GB.

Marketing Department
Proseware has a web app for the marketing department. The web app uses an Azure SQL database. Managers in the marketing department occasionally bulk load data by using a custom application. The database is updated daily.

Problem Statements
Proseware identifies the following issues:

– Lack of planning and knowledge has complicated the database environment
– Customers who have web apps hosted on Webserver1 report frequent outages caused by failures on WebDatal. The current uptime is less than 90 percent .
– Internally users complain of slow performance by the CRM application when the databases fail over to CRM-B
– WebDatal has no high availability option for the databases or the server.
– An internal licensing audit of SQL Server identifies that Proseware is non compliant. Hostl, CRM-A, and CRM-B are licensed properly. VM1 VM2, VM3, VM4, and WebDatal are unlicensed.

Requirements
Business Requirements
Proseware identifies the following business requirements:

Security Requirements
Proseware hosts a database for a company named Contoso, Ltd. Currently, all of the employees at Contoso can access all of the data in the database.

Contoso plans to limit user access to the CWDU database so that customer service representatives can see only the data from the PersonalInfo table that relates to their own customers.

QUESTION 22
You are evaluating moving the data from WebData1 to an Azure SQL database.
You need to recommend a solution to generate the consolidated report for billing.
The solution must meet the business requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)
B.    SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS)
C.    an elastic database job
D.    an elastic query

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
You are planning the consolidation of the databases from Host1.
You need to identify which methods to use to back up the data after the consolidation completes.
What are two possible methods that achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    BACKUP TO URL
B.    AlwaysOn failover clustering
C.    a maintenance plan
D.    AlwaysOn Availability Groups

Answer: AC

QUESTION 24
You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the CRM application that meets the business requirements.
What should you recommend?

A.    backup and restore by using Windows Azure Storage
B.    log shipping
C.    AlwaysOn Availability Groups
D.    database mirroring

Answer: A

QUESTION 25
You are evaluating whether to replace CRM-B with an Azure virtual machine.
You need to identify the required virtual machine service tier to replace CRM.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
Which virtual machine service tier should you identify?

A.    Standard DS3
B.    Standard A6
C.    Standard GS2
D.    Standard D3

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/virtual-machines-windows-sizes/

QUESTION 26
Drag and Drop Question
A marketing department manager reports that the marketing department database contains incorrect data. The manager reports that the data was correct yesterday.
You need to recommend a method to recover the data.
Which three actions should you recommend be performed in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

QUESTION 27
Drag and Drop Question
You plan to implement row-level security for the CWDB database.
You create the fn_limitusers function under the restriction schema.
You need to create the policy.
How should you complete the policy? To answer, drag the appropriate elements to the correct locations. Each element may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Answer:

Explanation:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn765131.aspx

QUESTION 28
Hotspot Question
You need to identify which methods to use to migrate MovieReviewDB and CWDB.
Which method should you identify for each database? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

Answer:

Explanation:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/sql-database-cloud-migrate-compatible-using-ssms-migration-wizard/

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QUESTION 121
Which of the following is the MOST significant risk to business continuity when using an external cloud service provider?

A.    Unauthorized access to customer data
B.    Vendor being purchased
C.    Virtual server failure
D.     Vendor going out of business

Answer: A
Explanation:
If your application stores and retrieves very sensitive data, you might not be able to maintain it in the cloud. Similarly, compliance requirements could also limit your choices.
http://cloudacademy.com/blog/cloud-migration-benefits-risks/

QUESTION 122
Which of the following describes what is meant by the ITIL Service Strategy component?

A.    Defining processes required to manage the solution.
B.    Designing the solution to the ITIL specifications.
C.    Ensuring changes are designed to meet customer expectations.
D.    Understanding the intended customer and what services are required.

Answer: D
Explanation:
The objective of ITIL Service Strategy is to decide on a strategy to serve customers. Starting from an assessment of customer needs and the market place, the Service Strategy lifecycle stage determines which services the IT organization is to offer and what capabilities need to be developed. Its ultimate goal is to make the IT organization think and act in a strategic manner.
http://wiki.en.it-processmaps.com/index.php/ITIL_Service_Strategy

QUESTION 123
An organization wants to host a critical application on two redundant leased servers located on the ISP’s datacenter. Which of the following is this an example of?

A.    PaaS
B.    IaaS
C.    Public cloud
D.    SaaS

Answer: B

QUESTION 124
Which of the following applications would be a good candidate to move to a cloud-based platform?

A.    Mission critical financial data
B.    Customer Relationship Management (CRM)
C.    High-performance computing
D.    Database that requires a low latency for indexing

Answer: B
Explanation:
The best place to start is with new applications that are customer-, partner- and employee- facing.
Cloud CRM (or CRM cloud) means any customer relationship management (CRM) technology where the CRM software, CRM tools and the organization’s customer data resides in the cloud and is delivered to end-users via the Internet.
Cloud CRM typically offers access to the application via Web-based tools (or Web browser) logins where the CRM system administrator has previously defined access levels across the organization. Employees can log in to the CRM system, simultaneously, from any Internet-enabled computer or device. Often, cloud CRM provide users with mobile apps to make it easier to use the CRM on smartphones and tablets.

https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/a-key-it-decision-which-apps-to-move-to-the-cloud/
http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/C/crm_cloud.html

QUESTION 125
A small company with an in-house IT staff is considering implementing a new technology that their current IT staff is unfamiliar with. The company would like to implement the new technology as soon as possible but does not have the budget to hire new IT staff. Which of the following should the company consider?

A.    Cloud computing
B.    New hardware
C.    Outsourcing
D.    Virtualization

Answer: C

QUESTION 126
A graphic design company regularly runs out of storage space on its file servers due to the large size of its customer artwork files. The company is considering migrating to cloud computing to solve this problem. Which of the following characteristics of cloud computing is the MOST beneficial reason the company should implement a cloud solution?

A.    Scalability
B.    Security
C.    Variable costs
D.    Hardware independence

Answer: A

QUESTION 127
Which of the following describes the commonality between cloud computing and outsourcing?

A.    Shift from CAPEX to OPEX
B.    Reduced compliance cost
C.    Simplified security management
D.    Reduced system architecture complexity.

Answer: A
Explanation:
“Capex vs. Opex” refers to the fact that stocking your own data center requires capital expenditure, while using an external cloud service that offers pay-as-you-go service falls into ongoing operating expenditures: thus the contrast of “Capex vs. Opex.”
http://www.cio.com/article/2430099/virtualization/capex-vs–opex–most-people-miss-the-point-about-cloud-economics.html

QUESTION 128
A business has recently implemented a hybrid cloud federated solution, which will allow it to rapidly and dynamically allocate recourses during high demand, and quickly implement its Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) and Continuity of Operations (COOP). Given this implementations, the IT director is mostly likely concerned about:

A.    maintaining strategic flexibility
B.    reducing OPEX allocations
C.    hiring additional IT staff
D.    eliminations security risks

Answer: D
Explanation:
Initially, the differences between Disaster Recover and Business Continuity should be understood. In comparison they are very similar in that they are (or should be) detailed plans to prepare an organization for events in which a situation presents itself which can cause internal systems failures, or a disruption of business systems in which they are no longer able to function to meet the requirements to perform day to day tasks. These situations almost always result in loss of revenue, and in some cases, loss of client base. Where these plans differ is in the main concept topic for which they prepare. Business Continuity Plans generally focus on the continuation of business services in the event of any type of interruptions whether its IT based or other. Disaster Recover Plans often refer to a company’s strategy if something happens to crucial business data, and how to restore / recover that data (generally in the shortest amount of time possible).
https://stumpj.wordpress.com/2010/10/18/coop-and-drp-what-is-the-difference/

QUESTION 129
An organization is moving web server clusters to a public IaaS cloud while keeping database servers in the company owned datacenter. The organization will continue utilizing the internal service desk to manage the application. Which of the following ITIL processes will plan the move?

A.    Release Management
B.    Incident Management
C.    Problem Management
D.    Change Management

Answer: D
Explanation:
Change Management is an IT service management discipline. The objective of change management in this context is to ensure that standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes to control IT infrastructure, in order to minimize the number and impact of any related incidents upon service.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Change_management_(ITSM)

QUESTION 130
Which of the following is the primary difference between private and public cloud?

A.    Tenancy of the cloud
B.    Management of the cloud
C.    Service model of the cloud
D.    Locations on the cloud

Answer: D
Explanation:
A private cloud hosting solution, also known as an internal or enterprise cloud, resides on company’s intranet or hosted data center where all of your data is protected behind a firewall.
The main differentiator between public and private clouds is that you aren’t responsible for any of the management of a public cloud hosting solution. Your data is stored in the provider’s data center and the provider is responsible for the management and maintenance of the data center.
https://www.expedient.com/blog/private-vs-public-cloud-whats-difference/

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QUESTION 21
You manage an Azure subscription with virtual machines (VMs) that are running in Standard mode.
You need to reduce the storage costs associated with the VMs.
What should you do?

A.    Locate and remove orphaned disks.
B.    Add the VMs to an affinity group.
C.    Change VMs to the Basic tier.
D.    Delete the VHD container.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/virtual-machines

QUESTION 22
You manage several Azure virtual machines (VMs).
You create a custom image to be used by employees on the development team.
You need to ensure that the custom image is available when you deploy new servers.
Which Azure Power Shell cmdlet should you use?

A.    Update-AzureVMImage
B.    Add-AzureVhd
C.    Add-AzureVMImage
D.    Update-AzureDisk
E.    Add-AzureDataDisk

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Add-AzureVMImage cmdlet adds an operating system image to the image repository.
The image should be a generalized operating system image, using either Sysprep for Windows or, for Linux, using the appropriate tool for the distribution.
Example
This example adds an operating system image to the repository.
Windows PowerShell
C:\PS>Add-AzureVMImage -ImageName imageName -MediaLocation
http://yourstorageaccount.blob.core.azure.com/container/sampleImage.vhd-Label

QUESTION 23
You manage an Azure virtual network that hosts 15 virtual machines (VMs) on a single subnet which is used for testing a line of business (LOB) application.
The application is deployed to a VM named TestWebServiceVM.
You need to ensure that TestWebServiceVM always starts by using the same IP address.
You need to achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?

A.    Use the Management Portal to configure TestWebServiceVM.
B.    Use RDP to configure TestWebServiceVM.
C.    Run the Set-AzureStaticVNetIP PowerShell cmdlet.
D.    Run the Get-AzureReservedIP PowerShell cmdlet.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Specify a static internal IP for a previously created VM
If you want to set a static IP address for a VM that you previously created, you can do so by using the following cmdlets. If you already set an IP address for the VM and you want to change it to a different IP address, you’ll need to remove the existing static IP address before running these cmdlets. See the instructions below to remove a static IP. For this procedure, you’ll use the Update-AzureVM cmdlet. The Update-AzureVM cmdlet restarts the VM as part of the update process. The DIP that you specify will be assigned after the VM restarts. In this example, we set the IP address for VM2, which is located in cloud service StaticDemo.
Get-AzureVM -ServiceName StaticDemo -Name VM2 | Set-AzureStaticVNetIP -IPAddress 192.168.4.7 | Update-AzureVM
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn630228.aspx

QUESTION 24
Drag and Drop Question
You administer two virtual machines (VMs) that are deployed to a cloud service.
The VMs are part of a virtual network.
The cloud service monitor and virtual network configuration are configured as shown in the exhibits. (Click the Exhibits button.)

You need to create an internal load balancer named fabLoadBalancer that has a static IP address of 172.16.0.100.
Which value should you use in each parameter of the Power Shell command? To answer, drag the appropriate value to the correct location in the Power Shell command. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Answer:

QUESTION 25
Your network environment includes remote employees.
You need to create a secure connection for the remote employees who require access to your Azure virtual network.
What should you do?

A.    Deploy Windows Server 2012 RRAS.
B.    Configure a point-to-site VPN.
C.    Configure an ExpressRoute.
D.    Configure a site-to-site VPN.

Answer: B
Explanation:
New Point-To-Site Connectivity
With today’s release we’ve added an awesome new feature that allows you to setup VPN connections between individual computers and a Windows Azure virtual network without the need for a VPN device. We call this feature Point-to-Site Virtual Private Networking. This feature greatly simplifies setting up secure connections between Windows Azure and client machines, whether from your office environment or from remote locations.
It is especially useful for developers who want to connect to a Windows Azure Virtual Network (and to the individual virtual machines within it) from either behind their corporate firewall or a remote location. Because it is point-to-site they do not need their IT staff to perform any activities to enable it, and no VPN hardware needs to be installed or configured. Instead you can just use the built-in Windows VPN client to tunnel to your Virtual Network in Windows Azure.
http://azure.microsoft.com/blog/2013/04/26/virtual-network-adds-new-capabilities-for-cross-premises-connectivity/

QUESTION 26
Drag and Drop Question
Your development team has created a new solution that is deployed in a virtual network named fabDevVNet.
Your testing team wants to begin testing the solution in a second Azure subscription.
You need to create a virtual network named fabTestVNet that is identical to fabDevVNet.
You want to achieve this goal by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

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QUESTION 21
You have business services that run on an on-premises mainframe server.
You must provide an intermediary configuration to support existing business services and Azure. The business services cannot be rewritten.
The business services are not exposed externally.
You need to recommend an approach for accessing the business services.
What should you recommend?

A.    Connect to the on-premises server by using a custom service in Azure.
B.    Expose the business services to the Azure Service Bus by using a custom service that uses
relay binding.
C.    Expose the business services externally.
D.    Move all business service functionality to Azure.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Service Bus relay service enables you to build hybrid applications that run in both an Azure datacenter and your own on-premises enterprise environment. The Service Bus relay facilitates this by enabling you to securely expose Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) services that reside within a corporate enterprise network to the public cloud, without having to open a firewall connection, or require intrusive changes to a corporate network infrastructure.
How to Use the Service Bus Relay Service
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/service-bus-dotnet-how-to-use-relay/

QUESTION 22
You design an Azure web application.
The web application is accessible by default as a standard cloudapp.net URL.
You need to recommend a DNS resource record type that will allow you to configure access to the web application by using a custom domain name.
Which DNS record type should you recommend?

A.    SRV
B.    MX
C.    CNAME
D.    A

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can also use CNAME or A records to associate a custom domain name with your VM. When you use A records, however, you need to note that the VIP of your VM might change. When you deallocate a VM, the associated VIP is released. And when the VM is restarted later, a new VIP will be picked and assigned. If you want to ensure that your VM has a static public IP address, you’ll need to conﬁ gure a static IP address for it as described earlier.
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/cloud-services-custom-domain-name/

QUESTION 23
A company hosts a website and exposes web services on the company intranet.
The intranet is secured by using a firewall. Company policies prohibit changes to firewall rules.
Devices outside the firewall must be able to access the web services.
You need to recommend an approach to enable inbound communication.
What should you recommend?

A.    The Azure Access Control Service
B.    Windows Azure Pack
C.    The Azure Service Bus
D.    A web service in an Azure role that relays data to the internal web services

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Service Bus Relay is designed for the use-case of taking existing Windows Communication Foundation (WCF) web services and making those services securely accessible to solutions that reside outside the corporate perimeter without requiring intrusive changes to the corporate network infrastructure. Such Service Bus relay services are still hosted inside their existing environment, but they delegate listening for incoming sessions and requests to the cloud-hosted Service Bus.
.NET On-Premises/Cloud Hybrid Application Using Service Bus Relay
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/cloud-services-dotnet-hybrid-app-usingservice-bus-relay/

QUESTION 24
You are designing an Azure application.
The application includes services hosted in different geographic locations.
The service locations may change.
You must minimize the cost of communication between services.
You need to recommend an approach for data transmission between your application and Azure services.
The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Table storage
B.    Service Bus
C.    Service Management API
D.    Azure Queue storage

Answer: B
Explanation:
The cost of ACS transactions is insignificant when performing messaging operations against Service Bus queues. Service Bus acquires one ACS token per a single instance of the messaging factory object. The token is then reused until it expires, after about 20 minutes. Therefore, the volume of messaging operations in Service Bus is not directly proportional to the amount of ACS transactions required to support these operations.
Azure Queues and Service Bus Queues – Compared and Contrasted
https://msdn.microsoft.com/library/azure/hh767287.aspx

QUESTION 25
You are designing a distributed application for Azure.
The application must securely integrate with on-premises servers.
You need to recommend a method of enabling Internet Protocol security (IPsec)-protected connections between on-premises servers and the distributed application.
What should you recommend?

A.    Azure Access Control
B.    Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
C.    Azure Service Bus
D.    Azure Site-to-Site VPN

Answer: D
Explanation:
IPsec can be used on Azure Site-to-Site VPN connections. Distributed applications can used the IPSec VPN connections to communicate.
About Virtual Network Secure Cross-Premises Connectivity
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn133798.aspx

QUESTION 26
A company has 10 on-premises SQL databases.
The company plans to move the databases to SQL Server 2012 that runs in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS).
After migration, the databases will support a limited number of Azure websites in the same Azure Virtual Network.
You have the following requirements:

– You must restore copies of existing on-premises SQL databases to the SQL servers that run in Azure IaaS.
– You must be able to manage the SQL databases remotely.
– You must not open a direct connection from all of the machines on the on-premises network to Azure.
– Connections to the databases must originate from only five Windows computers.
– You need to configure remote connectivity to the databases.

Which technology solution should you implement?

A.    Azure Virtual Network site-to-site VPN
B.    Azure Virtual Network multi-point VPN
C.    Azure Virtual Network point-to-site VPN
D.    Azure ExpressRoute

Answer: C
Explanation:
A point-to-site VPN would meet the requirements.
Configure a Point-to-Site VPN connection to an Azure Virtual Network
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/documentation/articles/vpn-gateway-point-to-site-create/

QUESTION 27
You have several virtual machines (VMs) that run in Azure.
You also have a single System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager (SCCM) primary site on-premises.
You have the following requirements:

– All VMs must run on the same virtual network.
– Network traffic must be minimized between the on-premises datacenter and Azure.
– The solution minimize complexity.

You need to use SCCM to collect inventory and deploy software to Azure VMs.
What should you do first?

A.    Configure client push for the Azure virtual network.
B.    Enable and configure Operations Insights in Azure.
C.    Install a cloud distribution point on an Azure VM.
D.    Install a secondary site underneath the primary site onto an Azure VM.

Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud-based distribution Point, a Configuration Manager Site System Role in the Cloud Much of the Configuration Manager topology is made up of distribution points, they are very helpful in many situations where bandwidth and geographical separation are the facts of life, but also hard to manage if you have hundreds or even thousands of them.
This feature started with the vision that it makes perfect sense to have big distribution points in the Windows Azure cloud where one should not worry about things like (but not limited to) size, performance, reliability, security, access from all around the world, hardware/software update issues etc.
Note: Content management in System Center 2012 Configuration Manager provides the tools for you to manage content files for applications, packages, software updates, and operating system deployment. Configuration Manager uses distribution points to store files that are required for software to run on client computers. These distribution points function as distribution centers for the content files and let users download and run the software. Clients must have access to at least one distribution point from which they can download the files.
New Distribution Points in Configuration Manager SP1
http://blogs.technet.com/b/configmgrteam/archive/2013/01/31/new-distribution-points-inconfiguration-manager-sp1.aspx

QUESTION 28
You are running a Linux guest in Azure Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS).
You must run a daily maintenance task.
The maintenance task requires native BASH commands.
You need to configure Azure Automation to perform this task.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Create an automation account.
B.    Create an Orchestrator runbook.
C.    Create an asset credential.
D.    Run the Invoke-Workflow Azure PowerShell cmdlet.
E.    Import the SSH PowerShell Module.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
A: An Automation Account is a container for your Azure Automation resources: it provides a way to separate your environments or further organize your workflows.
To create An Automation Account
1. Log in to the Azure Management Portal.
2. In the Management Portal, click Create an Automation Account.
3. On the Add a New Automation Account page, enter a name and pick a region for the account.
Get started with Azure Automation
http://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/automation-create-runbook-fromsamples/
C:
* Asset credentials are either a username and password combination that can be used with Windows PowerShell commands or a certificate that is uploaded to Azure Automation.
* The Assets page in Automation displays the various resources (also called “settings”) that are globally available to be used in or associated with a runbook, plus commands to import an
integration module, add a new asset, or delete an asset. Assets include variables, schedules, credentials, and connections.
Getting Started with Azure Automation: Automation Assets
http://azure.microsoft.com/blog/2014/07/29/getting-started-with-azure-automation-automationassets-2/
E:
Managing SSH enabled Linux hosts using Service Management Automation
http://blogs.technet.com/b/orchestrator/archive/2014/05/01/managing-ssh-enabled-linux-hostsusing-service-management-automation.aspx

QUESTION 29
A company has multiple Azure subscriptions.
It plans to deploy a large number of virtual machines (VMs) into Azure.
You install the Azure PowerShell module, but you are unable connect to all of the company’s Azure subscriptions.
You need to automate the management of the Azure subscriptions.
Which two Azure PowerShell cmdlets should you run?

A.    Get-AzurePublishSettingsFile
B.    Import-AzurePublishSettingsFile
C.    Add-AzureSubscription
D.    Import-AzureCertificate
E.    Get-AzureCertificate

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Before you start using the Windows Azure cmdlets to automate deployments, you must configure connectivity between the provisioning computer and Windows Azure. You can do this automatically by downloading the PublishSettings file from Windows Azure and importing it.
To download and import publish settings and subscription information At the Windows PowerShell command prompt, type the following command, and then press Enter.
Get-AzurePublishSettingsFile
2. Sign in to the Windows Azure Management Portal, and then follow the instructions to download your Windows Azure publishing settings. Save the file as a .publishsettings type file to your computer.
3. In the Windows Azure PowerShell window, at the command prompt, type the following command, and then press Enter.
Import-AzurePublishSettingsFile <mysettings>.publishsettings
How to: Download and Import Publish Settings and Subscription Information
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn385850%28v=nav.70%29.aspx

QUESTION 30
Contoso, Ltd., uses Azure websites for public-facing customer websites.
The company has a mobile app that requires customers sign in by using a Contoso customer account.
Customers must be able to sign on to the websites and mobile app by using a Microsoft, Facebook, or Google account.
All transactions must be secured in-transit regardless of device.
You need to configure the websites and mobile app to work with external identity providers.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Request a certificate from a domain registrar for the website URL, and enable TLS/SSL.
B.    Configure IPsec for the websites and the mobile app.
C.    Configure the KerberosTokenProfile 1.1 protocol.
D.    Configure OAuth2 to connect to an external authentication provider.
E.    Build an app by using MVC 5 that is hosted in Azure to provide a framework for the
underlying authentication.

Answer: ADE
Explanation:
DE: This tutorial shows you how to build an ASP.NET MVC 5 web application that enables users to log in using OAuth 2.0 with credentials from an external authentication provider, such as Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn, Microsoft, or Google.
A:
* You will now be redirected back to the Register page of the MvcAuth application where you can register your Google account. You have the option of changing the local email registration name used for your Gmail account, but you generally want to keep the default email alias (that is, the one you used for authentication). Click Register.
* To connect to authentication providers like Google and Facebook, you will need to set up IISExpress to use SSL.
Code! MVC 5 App with Facebook, Twitter, LinkedIn and Google OAuth2 Sign-on (C#)
http://www.asp.net/mvc/overview/security/create-an-aspnet-mvc-5-app-with-facebook-andgoogle-oauth2-and-openid-sign-on

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QUESTION 21
Hotspot Question
You have an image of Windows 10 Enterprise named Image1. Image1 has version number 1.0.0.0 of a custom, line-of-business universal app named App1.
You deploy Image1 to Computer1 for a user named User1.
You need to update App1 to version 1.0.0.1 on Computer1 for User1 only.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

Answer:

Explanation:
In this question, we need to update App1 to version 1.0.0.1 on Computer1 “for User1 only”. The Add-AppxPackage cmdlet adds a signed app package (.appx) to a user account. To update the application, we need to use the -path parameter to specify the path to the upgraded application.
Incorrect Answers:
add-provisionedappxpackage would make the app available to all users, not just User1 only. Set-AppXProvisionedDataFile adds custom data into an app. It does not update it to a later version.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh856048.aspx
http://blogs.technet.com/b/sunshine/archive/2014/03/22/updating-a-modern-app-in-windows-8.aspx

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Question
You manage Microsoft Intune for a company named Contoso.
You have an administrative computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to add a Windows Store universal app named App1 to the Company Portal Apps list for all users.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

Explanation:
1. Log into your computer using a domain account.
2. Run the Microsoft Intune Software Publisher wizard app.
3. Configure the deployment settings of the app.
Incorrect Answers:
You do not need to install App1 on Computer1.
You need to log in with a domain account, not a local administrator account.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn646961.aspx
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn646955.aspx#BKMK_SoftwareDistProcess

QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains Windows 10 Enterprise client computers.
Your company has a subscription to Microsoft Office 365. Each user has a mailbox that is stored in Office 365 and a user account in the contoso.com domain. Each mailbox has two email addresses.
You need to add a third email address for each user.
What should you do?

A.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the E-mail attribute for each user.
B.    From Microsoft Azure Active Directory Module for Windows PowerShell, run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
C.    From Active Directory Domains and Trust, add a UPN suffix for each user.
D.    From the Office 365 portal, modify the Users settings of each user.

Answer: B
Explanation:
We can use the Set-Mailbox cmdlet to modify the settings of existing mailboxes.
The EmailAddresses parameter specifies all the email addresses (proxy addresses) for the recipient, including the primary SMTP address. In on-premises Exchange organizations, the primary SMTP address and other proxy addresses are typically set by email address policies. However, you can use this parameter to configure other proxy addresses for the recipient.
To add or remove specify proxy addresses without affecting other existing values, use the following syntax:
@{Add=”[<Type>]:<emailaddress1>”,”[<Type>]:<emailaddress2>”…; Remove=”[<Type>]:<emailaddress2>”,”[<Type>]:<emailaddress2>”…}.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You cannot use the E-mail attribute in Active Directory Users and Computers to add email addresses.
C: A UPN (User Principal Name) is used for authentication when you enter your credentials as username@domainname.com instead of: domainname\username. A UPN suffix is not an email address.
D: Users’ email addresses are not configured in the User settings in the Office 365 portal.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb123981(v=exchg.160).aspx

QUESTION 24
Hotspot Question
You manage a Microsoft Azure RemoteApp deployment. The deployment consists of a cloud collection named CloudCollection1 and a hybrid collection named HybridCollection1. Both collections reside in a subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains two Active Directory instances named AzureAD1 and AzureAD2. AzureAD1 is the associated directory of Subcsription1.
AzureAD1 is synchronized to an on-premises Active Directory forest named constoso.com. Passwords are synchronized between AzureAD1 and the on-premises Active Directory.
You have the following user accounts:

You need to identify to which collections each user can be assigned access.
What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

Answer:

Explanation:
A Microsoft account can only access a cloud collection.
An Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) account can access a cloud collection and it can access a hybrid collection if directory synchronization with password sync is deployed. An on-premise domain account that does not exist in any Azure Active Directory cannot access Azure cloud resources.
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/remoteapp-collections/

QUESTION 25
Your Windows 10 Enterprise work computer is a member of an Active Directory domain.
You use your domain account to log on to the computer.
You use your Microsoft account to log on to a home laptop.
You want to access Windows 10 Enterprise apps from your work computer by using your Microsoft account.
You need to ensure that you are able to access the Windows 10 Enterprise apps on your work computer by logging on only once.
What should you do?

A.    Add the Microsoft account as a user on your work computer.
B.    Enable Remote Assistance on your home laptop.
C.    Connect your Microsoft account to your domain account on your work computer.
D.    Install SkyDrive for Windows on both your home laptop and your work computer.

Answer: C
Explanation:
You can connect your Microsoft account to your domain account on your work computer. This will enable you to sign in to your work computer with your Microsoft account and access the same resources that you would access if you were logged in with your domain account.
When you connect your Microsoft account to your domain account, you can sync your settings and preferences between them. For example, if you use a domain account in the workplace, you can connect your Microsoft account to it and see the same desktop background, app settings, browser history and favorites, and other Microsoft account settings that you see on your home PC.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If you add the Microsoft account as a user on your work computer, this would be a separate account with no domain access. The account would not have access to the resources that you access with your domain account.
B: Enabling Remote Assistance on your home laptop would just enable you to send remote assistance invitations from your home laptop. It would have no effect on your work computer or your ability to log on to it.
D: SkyDrive is a cloud storage solution. You can save your files on SkyDrive and access them from any device. Installing SkyDrive will not enable you to log on to your work computer with your Microsoft account.
http://windows.microsoft.com/en-gb/windows-8/connect-microsoft-domain-account

QUESTION 26
You have a Windows 10 Enterprise computer named Computer1 that has the Hyper-V feature installed. Computer1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows 10 Enterprise. VM1 connects to a private virtual network switch.
From Computer1, you need to remotely execute Windows PowerShell cmdlets on VM1.
What should you do?

A.    Run the winrm.exe command and specify the -s parameter.
B.    Run the Powershell.exe command and specify the -Command parameter.
C.    Run the Receive-PSSession cmdlet and specify the -Name parameter.
D.    Run the Invoke-Command cmdlet and specify the -VMName parameter.

Answer: D
Explanation:
We can use Windows PowerShell Direct to run PowerShell cmdlets on a virtual machine from the Hyper-V host. Because Windows PowerShell Direct runs between the host and virtual machine, there is no need for a network connection or to enable remote management.
There are no network or firewall requirements or special configuration. It works regardless of your remote management configuration. To use it, you must run Windows 10 or Windows Server Technical Preview on the host and the virtual machine guest operating system.
To create a PowerShell Direct session, use one of the following commands:
Enter-PSSession -VMName VMName
Invoke-Command -VMName VMName -ScriptBlock { commands }
Incorrect Answers:
A: WinRM is Windows Remote Management. This is not required when using Windows PowerShell Direct.
B: Running PowerShell.exe with a PowerShell cmdlet will execute the PowerShell cmdlet on the local machine. It will not remotely execute the PowerShell cmdlet on the VM.
C: You could run the Enter-PSSession cmdlet with the -VMName parameter but the Receive-PSSession cmdlet with the 璑ame parameter will not work.
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/hyperv_on_windows/about/whats_new

QUESTION 27
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 10 Enterprise.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do?

A.    In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
B.    In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
C.    Configure the active power plan to set the system cooling policy to passive.
D.    Disable the C-State control in the computer’s BIOS.

Answer: B
Explanation:
We can minimize power usage on the tablet PCs by configuring them to use Hibernation mode.
A computer in hibernation mode uses no power at all.
Hibernation is a power-saving state designed primarily for laptops. While sleep puts your work and settings in memory and draws a small amount of power, hibernation puts your open documents and programs on your hard disk, and then turns off your computer. Of all the power-saving states in Windows, hibernation uses the least amount of power. On a laptop, use hibernation when you know that you won’t use your laptop for an extended period and won’t have an opportunity to charge the battery during that time.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Sleep is a power-saving state that allows a computer to quickly resume full-power operation.
A sleeping computer draws a small amount of power whereas a hibernating computer uses no power.
C: A passive cooling policy slows down the processor before speeding up the processor’s cooling fan to conserve power. However, this will still use more power than a hibernating tablet.
D: C-States are different modes of CPU clock speed used to conserve power when processors are idle.
Disabling C-State control disables the ability to reduce the power consumption of the computer.
http://windows.microsoft.com/en-gb/windows7/sleep-and-hibernation-frequently-asked-questions

QUESTION 28
You are the desktop administrator for a small company.
Your workgroup environment consists of Windows 10 Enterprise computers.
You want to prevent 10 help desk computers from sleeping. However, you want the screens to shut off after a certain period of time if the computers are not being used.
You need to configure and apply a standard power configuration scheme for the 10 help desk computers on your network.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Import the power scheme by using POWERCFG /IMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /S.
B.    Use POWERCFG /X on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements.
Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
C.    Use POWERCFG /S on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet the requirements.
Export the power scheme by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
D.    Import the power scheme by using POWERCFG /IMPORT on each of the remaining help desk computers. Set the power scheme to Active by using POWERCFG /X.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
You can use the Powercfg.exe tool to control power settings and configure computers to default to Hibernate or Standby modes.
In this question, we use POWERCFG /X on one help desk computer to modify the power scheme to meet our requirements. After configuring the required settings, we can export the power scheme settings to a file by using POWERCFG /EXPORT.
We can then import the power scheme from the file on each of the remaining help desk computers by using POWERCFG /IMPORT. After importing the power scheme on the remaining computers, we need to set the new power scheme to be the active power scheme by using POWERCFG /S.
Incorrect Answers:
C: You need to use the /X switch to modify the power scheme, not the /S switch.
D: You need to use the /S switch to set the power scheme as active, not the /X switch.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc748940(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 29
A company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All client computers run Windows 10 Enterprise. Some computers have a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
You need to configure a single Group Policy object (GPO) that will allow Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption on all client computers.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Enable the Require additional authentication at startup policy setting.
B.    Enable the Enforce drive encryption type on operating system drives policy setting.
C.    Enable the option to allow BitLocker without a compatible TPM.
D.    Configure the TPM validation profile to enable Platform Configuration Register indices (PCRs) 0, 2, 4, and 11.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
We need to allow Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption on all client computers (including client computers that do not have Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip).
We can do this by enabling the option to allow BitLocker without a compatible TPM in the group policy. The `Allow BitLocker without a compatible TPM’ option is a checkbox in the `Require additional authentication at startup’ group policy setting. To access the `Allow BitLocker without a compatible TPM’ checkbox, you need to first select Enabled on the `Require additional authentication at startup’ policy setting.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Enabling the `Enforce drive encryption type on operating system drives’ policy setting allows you to configure whether the entire drive or used space only is encrypted when BitLocker is enabled. However, it does not enable the use of BitLocker on computers without a TPM chip.
D: The Platform Configuration Register indices (PCRs) 0, 2, 4, and 11 are enabled by default for computers that use an Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI). Configuring the TPM validation profile does not enable the use of BitLocker on computers without a TPM chip.
http://www.howtogeek.com/howto/6229/how-to-use-bitlocker-on-drives-without-tpm/

QUESTION 30
Employees are permitted to bring personally owned portable Windows 10 Enterprise computers to the office. They are permitted to install corporate applications by using the management infrastructure agent and access corporate email by using the Mail app.
An employee’s personally owned portable computer is stolen.
You need to protect the corporate applications and email messages on the computer.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Prevent the computer from connecting to the corporate wireless network.
B.    Change the user’s password.
C.    Disconnect the computer from the management infrastructure.
D.    Initiate a remote wipe.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The personally owned portable Windows 10 Enterprise computers being managed by the management infrastructure agent enables the use of remote wipe. By initiating a remote wipe, we can erase all company data including email from the stolen device.
Microsoft Intune provides selective wipe, full wipe, remote lock, and passcode reset capabilities. Because mobile devices can store sensitive corporate data and provide access to many corporate resources, you can issue a remote device wipe command from the Microsoft Intune administrator console to wipe a lost or stolen device.
Changing the user’s password should be the first step. If the stolen computer is accessed before the remote wipe happens, the malicious user could be able to access company resources if the laptop has saved passwords.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Preventing the computer from connecting to the corporate wireless network will not offer much protection. The person in possession of the laptop would still be able to access all the data on the laptop and download emails. Furthermore, it is likely that the corporate applications can access corporate servers over any Internet connection.
C: Disconnecting the computer from the management infrastructure will not help. The person in possession of the laptop would still be able to access all the data on the laptop and download emails. This step would also remove the ability to perform a remote wipe. The computer will be disconnected from the management infrastructure when the remote wipe happens.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/jj676679.aspx

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QUESTION 21
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
File History is turned on.
The user of Computer1 reports that previous versions of D:\Folder\File1 doc are unavailable from the Previous Versions tab.
You need to ensure that the previous versions of the file are created
Solution: Add D:\Folder\to the Documents library.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/help/17128/windows-8-file-history

QUESTION 22
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2. User1 fails to access the Event Viewer logs on Computer 2 from Computer 1.
User1 can connect to Computed remotely by using Computer Management.
You need to ensure that User1 can use Event Viewer on Computer1 to remotely view the Event Viewer logs on Computer 2.
Solution: You run Enable-PSRemoting on Computer 1.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.howtogeek.com/117192/how-to-run-powershell-commands-on-remote-computers/

QUESTION 23
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario.
Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

A user named User1 is a member of the local Administrators group on Computer1 and Computer2. User1 fails to access the Event Viewer logs on Computer 2 from Computer 1.
User1 can connect to Computed remotely by using Computer Management.
You need to ensure that User1 can use Event Viewer on Computer1 to remotely view the Event Viewer logs on Computer 2.
Solution: You run winrm quick config on Computer2.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa384372(v=vs.85).aspx

QUESTION 24
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario.
For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question.
Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
The network contains five servers configured as shown in the following table.

All of the servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Test_Server has a shared folder named ShareA. Only local users have permissions to ShareA. The network contains a mainframe computer that is administered by using the Telnet protocol. The domain contains four client computers configured as shown in the following table.

All of the client computers run the 64-bit version of Windows.
User3 frequently accesses ShareA.
Remote Desktop is enabled on Computer4.
Your company identifies the following requirements:

– Ensure that you can test unsigned device drivers on Computer1
– Enable Credential Guard on Computer2.
– Run commands and cmdlets remotely on computer2.
– Configure User Account control (UAC) on Computer3 to prompt administrators for credentials when elevated privileges are required.
– Ensure that User1 can view and interact with a desktop session of User3.
– Ensure that User2 can use Telnet to manage the mainframe.
– Ensure that User4 can use Remote Desktop to access Computer4 remotely.

End of repeated scenario.
You need to configure Computer3 to meet the UAC requirement. What should you use?

A.    User Account Control Settings
B.    Credential Manager
C.    Security Options in the Computer Configuration of the Local Computer Policy.
D.    Security Settings in the User Computer of the Local Computer Policy.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.ghacks.net/2013/06/20/how-to-configure-windows-uac-prompt-behavior-for-admins-and-users/

QUESTION 25
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
The network contains five servers configured as shown in the following table.

All of the client computers run the 64-bit version of Windows.
User3 frequently accesses ShareA.
Remote Desktop is enabled on Computer4.
Your company identifies the following requirements:

End of repeated scenario.
On Test_Server, you reset the password for User3.
You need to ensure that User3 can access ShareA.
Which tool should you instruct User3 to use on Computer3?

A.    the Get-Credential cmdlet
B.    Credential Manager
C.    Authorization Manager
D.    Active Directory Users and Computers

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.digitalcitizen.life/credential-manager-where-windows-stores-passwords-other-login-details

QUESTION 26
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
The network contains five servers configured as shown in the following table.

All of the client computers run the 64-bit version of Windows.
User3 frequently accesses ShareA.
Remote Desktop is enabled on Computer4.
Your company identifies the following requirements:

End of repeated scenario.
You need to meet the Credential Guard requirement of Computer2. Which two Windows features should you install? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Windows Process Activation Service (WAS)
B.    Embedded Boot Experience
C.    Isolated User Mode
D.    Windows Identity Foundation 3.5
E.    Hyper-V Hypervisor

Answer: CE
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/itpro/windows/keep-secure/credential-guard

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QUESTION 21
You have an Active Directory domain named Contoso.com.
The domain contains servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
You install the Remote Access server role on Server1.
You install the Network Policy and Access Services server role on Server2.
You need to configure Server1 to use Server2 as a RADIUS server.
What should you do?

A.    From Routing and Remote Access, configure the authentication provider.
B.    From the Connection Manager Administration Kit, create a Connection Manager profile
C.    From Server Manager, create an Access Policy.
D.    From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the Delegation settings of the Server1 computer account.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of Repeated Scenario:
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2.
All servers in the domain run Windows Server 2016 Standard. The domain contains 300 client computers that run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.
The domain contains nine servers that are configured as shown in the following table.

The virtual machines are configured as follows:

– Each virtual machine has one virtual network adapter
– VM1 and VM2 are part of a Network Load Balancing (NIB) cluster.
– All of the servers on the network can communicate with all of the virtual machines.

End of repeated Scenario.

On server4, you plan to provision a new volume that will be used to create large, fixed-size VHDX files.
Which type of file system should you use the new volume to minimize the amount of time required to create the VHDX files?

A.    ReFS
B.    NTFS
C.    CVFS
D.    exFAT

Answer: A
Explanation:
ReFS has the fastest creation times for large, fixed-size VHDx files.

QUESTION 23
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
The Windows Server 2016 installation media is mounted as drive D.
You copy the NanoServerimageGenerator folder from the D:\NanoServer folder to the C \NanoServer folder.
You need to create a custom Nano Server image that mdudes the Hyper-V server role.
The image will be used to deploy Nano Servers to physical servers.
Which two commands should you run?

A.    Option A
B.    Option B
C.    Option C
D.    Option D
E.    Option E

Answer: DE
Explanation:
You must import the module for NanoServerImage generation, then use the New-NanoServerImage command to create the new image.

QUESTION 24
You need to create highly available storage spaces that connect to directly attached storage on the hosts.
Which cmdlet should you use?

A.    Enable-ClusterStorageSpacesDired
B.    Set-StoragePool
C.    Add-ClusterDisk
D.    Update-ClusterVirtualMachineConfiguration

Answer: A

The virtual machines are configured as follows:

– Each virtual machine has one virtual network adapter.
– VM1 and VM2 are part of a Network Load Balancing (NIB) cluster.
– All of the servers on the network can communicate with all of the virtual machines.

End of repeated Scenario.

You need to minimize the likelihood that a virtual machine running malicious code will consume excessive resources on Server5.
What should you do?

A.    Configure the virtual machines as shielded virtual machines.
B.    Run the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet and specify the -EnableHostResourceProtection Parameter.
C.    Run the Set-VMProcessor cmdlet and specify the -MaximumCountPerNumaNode Parameter.
D.    Configure VM Network Adapter Isolation.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Enable Set-VMProcessor with EnableHostResourceProtection to prevent an a virtual machine from consuming excessive resources on its host.

QUESTION 26
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, white others might not have a correct solution.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest.
You install Windows Server 2016 on 10 virtual machines.
You need to deploy the Web Server (IIS) server role identically to the virtual machines.
Solution: You create a software installation package, and then you publish the package to the virtual machines by using a Group Policy object (GPO)
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 27
You have an application named App1 App1 is distributed to multiple Hyper-V virtual machines in a multitenant environment.
You need to ensure that the traffic is distributed evenly among the virtual machines that host App1.
What should you include in the environment?

A.    Network Controller and Windows Server Network Load Balancing (NLB) nodes
B.    Network Controller and Windows Server Software Load Balancing (SLB) nodes
C.    an RAS Gateway and Windows Server Network Load Balancing (NLB) nodes
D.    an RAS Gateway and Windows Server Software Load Balancing (SLB) nodes

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
In this section, you’ll see one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem, and you must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. Any of the solutions might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions solve the problem.
Once you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a DNS server named Server1. All client computers run Windows 10.
On Server1, you have the following zone configuration.

You need to prevent Server1 from resolving queries from DNS clients located on Subnet4. Server1 must resolve queries from all other DNS clients.
Solution From Windows PowerShell on Server1, you run the Export- DnsServerDnsSecPublicKey cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a two-node Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1.
As virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1.
You need to configure monitoring of VM1.
The solution must move VM1 to a different node if the Print Spooler service on VM1 stops unexpectedly.
Which tool should you use?

A.    the clussvc.exe command
B.    the cluster.exe command
C.    the Computer Management console
D.    the configurehyperv.exe command
E.    the Disk Management console
F.    the Failover Cluster Manager console
G.    the Hyper-V Manager console
H.    the Server Manager Desktop app

Answer: F

QUESTION 30
You have a failover cluster named Cluster!
A virtual machine named VM1 is a highly available virtual machine that runs on Cluster1. A custom application named App1 runs on VM1.
You need to configure monitoring of VM1. If App1 adds an error entry to the Application event log, VM1 should be automatically rebooted and moved to another cluster node.
Which tool should you use?

A.    Hyper-V Manager
B.    Failover Cluster Manager
C.    Server Manager
D.    Resource Monitor

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
Users report that when they turn on their client computers, it takes a long time to access the network.
You validate that it takes a long time for the computers to receive an IP address from Server1.
You monitor the network traffic and discover that Server1 issues five ping commands on the network before leasing an IP address.
You need to reduce the amount of time it takes for the computers to receive an IP address.
What should you do?

A.    From the properties of Scope1, modify the Conflict detection attempts setting.
B.    From the properties of Scope1, configure Name Protection.
C.    From the properties of IPv4, configure the bindings.
D.    From IPv4, create a new filter.
E.    From the properties of Scope1, create an exclusion range.
F.    From IPv4, run the DHCP Policy Configuration Wizard.
G.    From Control Panel, modify the properties of Ethernet.
H.    From Scope1, create a reservation.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee941125(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2012.
The forest contains five domain controllers and five VPN servers that run Windows Server 2016.
Five hundred users connect to the VPN servers daily.
You need to configure a new server named Server1 as a RADIUS server.
What should you do first?

A.    On Server1, deploy the Remote Access server role.
B.    On Server1, deploy the Network Policy and Access Services role.
C.    On a domain controller, set the forest functional level to Windows Server 2016.
D.    On each VPN server, run the New-NpsRadiusClient cmdlet.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.nyazit.com/configure-network-policy-server-2016/

QUESTION 23
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a DHCP server named Server2 than runs Windows Server 2016.
Users report that their client computers fail to obtain an IP address.
You open the DHCP console as shown in the Exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

Scope1 has an address range of 172.16.0.10 to 172.16.0.100 and a prefix length of 23 bits.
You need to ensure that all of the client computers on the network can obtain an IP address from Server2.
Solution: You run the Reconcile-DhcpServerv4IPRecord cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/itpro/powershell/windows/dhcp-server/set-dhcpserverv4scope

QUESTION 24
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 and Server2 are connected to the same network.
On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machine shown in the following table.

All three virtual machines are connected to Switch1.
You need to prevent applications in VM3 from being able to capture network traffic from VM1 or VM2.
The solution must ensure that VM1 retains network connectivity.
What should you do?

A.    Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.
B.    Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
C.    On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
D.    On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/networking/2016/10/26/network-virtualization-with-ws2016-sdn/

QUESTION 25
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 is a Hyper-V host that hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
Server1 has three network adapter cards that are connected to virtual switches named vSwitch1, vSwitch2 and vSwitch3.
You configure NIC Teaming on VM1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that VM1 will retain access to the network if a physical network adapter card fails on Server1.
What should you do?

A.    From Windows PowerShell on VM1, run the Set-VmNetworkAdapterTeamMapping cmdlet.
B.    From Hyper-V Manager on Server1, modify the settings on VM1.
C.    From Windows PowerShell on Server1, run the Set- VmNetworkAdapterFailoverConfiguration cmdlet.
D.    From the properties of the NIC team on VM1, add the adapter named Ethernet to the NIC team.

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server-docs/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/nic-teaming

QUESTION 26
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a DHCP server named Server1 that has three network cards. Each network card is configured to use a static IP address.
You need to prevent all client computers that have physical address beginning with 98-5F from leasing an IP address from Server1.
What should you do?

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee941125(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com
Your company plans to hire 500 temporary employees for a project that will last 90 days.
You create a new user account for each employee. An organizational unit (OU) named Temp contains the user accounts for the employees.
You need to prevent the new users from accessing any of the resources in the domain after 90 days.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-ADUser cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-ADUser cmdlet.
B.    Create a group that contains all of the users in the Temp OU. Create a Password Setting object (PSO) for the new group.
C.    Create a Group Policy object (GPO) and link the GPO to the Temp OU. Modify the Password Policy settings of the GPO.
D.    Run the GET-ADOrganizationalUnit cmdlet and pipe the output to the Set-Date cmdlet.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 is located in the perimeter network.
You install the Active Directory Federation Services server role on Server1.
You create an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm by using a certificate that has a subject name of sts.contoso.com.
You need to enable certificate authentication from the Internet on Server1.
Which two inbound TCP ports should you open on the firewall? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    389
B.    443
C.    3389
D.    8531
E.    49443

Answer: BE

QUESTION 23
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains a member server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Contoso.com has the following configuration.

PS C:\> (Get-ADForest).ForestMode
Windows2008R2Forest
PS C:\> (Get-ADDomain).DomainMode
Windows2008R2Domain
PS C:\>

You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm on Server1 and to configure device registration.
You need to configure Active Directory to support the planned deployment.
Solution: You run adprep.exe from the Windows Server 2016 installation media.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Device Registration requires Windows Server 2012 R2 forest schema.

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have an organizational unit (OU) named TestOU that contains test computers.
You need to enable a technician named Tech1 to create Group Policy objects (GPOs) and to link the GPOs to TestOU.
The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Add Tech1 to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
B.    From Group Policy Management, modify the Delegation settings of the TestOU OU.
C.    Add Tech1 to the Protected Users group.
D.    From Group Policy Management, modify the Delegation settings of the contoso.com container.
E.    Create a new universal security group and add Tech1 to the group.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
You have users that access web applications by using HTTPS. The web applications are located on the servers in your perimeter network. The servers use certificates obtained from an enterprise root certification authority (CA). The certificates are generated by using a custom template named WebApps. The certificate revocation list (CRL) is published to Active Directory.
When users attempt to access the web applications from the Internet, the users report that they receive a revocation warning message in their web browser.
The users do not receive the message when they access the web applications from the intranet.
You need to ensure that the warning message is not generated when the users attempt to access the web applications from the Internet.
What should you do?

A.    Install the Certificate Enrollment Web Service role service on a server in the perimeter network.
B.    Modify the WebApps certificate template, and then issue the certificates used by the web application servers.
C.    Install the Web Application Proxy role service on a server in the perimeter network.
Create a publishing point for the CA.
D.    Modify the CRL distribution point, and then reissue the certificates used by the web application servers.

Answer: D

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains several domains.
An administrator named Admin01 installs Windows Server 2016 on a server named Server1 and then joins Server1 to the contoso.com domain.
Admin01 plans to configure Server1 as an enterprise root certification authority (CA).
You need to ensure that Admin01 can configure Server1 as an enterprise CA. The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
To which group should you add Admin01?

A.    Server Operators in the contoso.com domain
B.    Cert Publishers on Server1
C.    Enterprise Key Admins in the contoso.com domain
D.    Enterprise Admins in the contoso.com domain.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains 5,000 user accounts.
You have a Group Policy object (GPO) named DomainPolicy that is linked to the domain and a GPO named DCPolicy that is linked to the Domain Controllers organizational unit (OU).
You need to configure the Documents folder of every user to be stored on a server named FileServer1.
What should you do?

A.    From the Computer Configuration node of DCPolicy, modify Security Settings.
B.    From the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Security Settings.
C.    From the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Administrative Templates.
D.    From the User Configuration node of DCPolicy, modify Security Settings.
E.    From the User Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Folder Redirection.
F.    From user Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Administrative Templates.
G.    From Preferences in the User Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Windows Settings.
H.    From Preferences in the Computer Configuration node of DomainPolicy, modify Windows Settings.

Answer: E

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You have an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm.
The farm contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You add a server named Server2 to the farm. Server2 runs Windows Server 2016.
You remove Server1 from the farm.
You need to ensure that you can use role separation to manage the farm.
Which cmdlet should you run?

A.    Set-AdfsFarmInformation
B.    Update-AdfsRelyingPartyTrust
C.    Set-AdfsProperties
D.    Invoke-AdfsFarmBehaviorLevelRaise

Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
The computer account for Server1 is in organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You create a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 and link GPO1 to OU1.
You need to add a domain user named User1 to the local Administrators group on Server1.
Solution: From a domain controller, you run the Set-AdComputer cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Your company recently deployed a new child domain to an Active Directory forest.
You discover that a user modified the Default Domain Policy to configure several Windows components in the child domain.
A company policy states that the Default Domain Policy must be used only to configure domain-wide security settings.
You create a new Group Policy object (GPO) and configure the settings for the Windows components in the new GPO.
You need to restore the Default Domain Policy to the default settings from when the domain was first installed.
What should you do?

A.    From Group Policy Management, click Starter GPOs, and then click Manage Backups.
B.    From a command prompt, run the dcgpofix.exe command.
C.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Copy-GPO cmdlet.
D.    Run ntdsutil.exe to perform a metadata cleanup and a semantic database analysis.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 101
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has four SCSI disks and a storage pool named Pool1 that contains three disks.
You create a virtual disk named Disk 1 that uses a mirrored layout.
You create a partition named Partition1 that uses all of the available space on Disk 1.
You need to extend Partition1.
What should you do first?

A.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Resize-VirtualDisk cmdlet.
B.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Resize-StorageTier cmdlet.
C.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Expand-IscsiVirtualDisk cmdlet.
D.    From Disk Management, modify the properties of Partition1.

Answer: A

QUESTION 102
You are configuring a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster in a workgroup.
Before installing one of the nodes, you run the ipconfig /all command and receive the following output.

You need to ensure that Server1 can be added as a node in the cluster.
What should you do?

A.    Configure a DNS suffix.
B.    Enable NetBIOS over TCP/IP.
C.    Change the Node Type to Broadcast.
D.    Assign a static IP address.

Answer: A
Explanation:
In addition to the pre-requisites of Single-domain clusters, there are additional pre-requisites for Multi-domain or Workgroup clusters in the Windows Server 2016 including Primary DNS Suffix Requirements.
Note: Failover Clusters can now be created in the following configurations:
References: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/clustering/2015/08/17/workgroup-and-multi-domain-clusters-in-windows-server-2016/

QUESTION 103
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
The Docker daemon runs on Server1.
You need to ensure that members of a security group named Docker Administrators can administer Docker.
What should you do?

A.    Run theSet-Service cmdlet.
B.    Modify the Security settings of Dockerd.exe.
C.    Edit the Daemon.json file.
D.    Modify the Security settings of Docker.exe.

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/virtualization/windowscontainers/manage-docker/configure-docker-daemon

QUESTION 104
You have a DHCP server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You have a single IP subnet.
Server1 has an IPv4 scope named Scope1.
Scope1 has an IP address range of 10.0.1.10 to 10.0.1.200 and a length of 24 bits.
You need to create a second logical IP network on the subnet.
The subnet will use an IP address range of 10.0.2.10 to 10.0.2.200 and a length of 24 bits.
What should you do?

A.    Create a second scope, and then create a superscope.
B.    Create a superscope, and then configure an exclusion range in Scope1.
C.    Create a new scope, and then modify the IPv4 bindings.
D.    Create a second scope, and then run the DHCP Split-Scope Configuration Wizard.

Answer: A

QUESTION 105
You are deploying a small network that has 30 client computers.
The network uses the 192.168.1.0/24 address space. All computers obtain IP configurations from a DHCP server named Server1.
You install a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server2 has two network adapters named internal and Internet.
Internet connects to an Internet service provider (ISP) and obtains the 131.107.0.10 IP address.
Internal connects to the internal network and is configured to use the 192.168.1.250 IP address.
You need to provide Internet connectivity for the client computers.
What should you do?

A.    On Server2, select the Internet and Internal network adapters and bridge the connections.
From the DHCP console on Server1, authorize Server2.
B.    On Server1, stop the DHCP server.
On the Internal network adapter on Server 2, enable Internet Connection Sharing (ICS).
C.    On Server2 run the New-NetNat -Name NAT1 -InternalIPInterfaceAddressPrefix 192.168.1.0/24 cmdlet. Configure Server1 to provide the 003 Router option of 131.107.0.10.
D.    Install the Routing role service on Server2 and configure the NAT routing protocol. Configure Server1 to provide the 003 Router option of 192.168.1.250.

Answer: B

QUESTION 106
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
The following virtual switches are configured on the Hyper-V hosts.

The following virtual machines run on the Hyper-V hosts.

All virtual machines have IP addresses from the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
VLANs are configured in Hyper-V only. Physical switches are not configured with VLANs.
To which virtual machine or virtual machines can VM1 connect?

A.    VM2, VM3, VM5 and VM6 only
B.    VM2, VM3 and VM4 only
C.    VM2 only
D.    VM2 and VM5 only

Answer: D
Explanation:
If the port is set to a specific VLAN, then that port becomes a member of that VLAN. Its frames are still untagged, but the switch will only allow that port to communicate with other devices on the same VLAN.
References: http://www.altaro.com/hyper-v/setting-up-vlans-in-hyper-v/

QUESTION 107
You have two Hyper-V hosts named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016. Server1 and Server2 are connected to the same network.
On Server1 and Server2, you create an external network switch named Switch1.
You have the virtual machines shown in the following table.

A.    On Server2, configure the VLAN ID setting of Switch1.
B.    On Server2, create an external switch and connect VM3 to the switch.
C.    Modify the subnet mask of VM1 and VM2.
D.    Configure network virtualization for VM1 and VM2.

Answer: D

QUESTION 108
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have a two-node Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1 at a primary location and a stand-alone Hyper-V host named Server1 at a secondary location.
A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1.
You configure a Hyper-V Replica of VM1 to Server1.
You need to perform a Test Failover of VM1.
Which tool should you use?

A.    the clussvc.exe command
B.    the cluster.exe command
C.    the Computer Management snap-in
D.    the configurehyperv.exe command
E.    the Disk Management snap-in
F.    the Failover Cluster Manager snap-in
G.    the Hyper-V Manager snap-in
H.    the Server Manager app

Answer: G

QUESTION 109
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are nodes in a failover cluster.
On Server1, an administrator creates a virtual machine named VM1.
You need to configure VM1 for high availability.
Which tool should you use?

Answer: F
Explanation:
http://windowsitpro.com/hyper-v/make-vm-highly-available-windows-server-2012

QUESTION 110
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You need to identify which server is the schema master.
Solution: You open Active Directory Users and Computers, right-click contoso.com in the console tree, and then click Operations Master.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
This solution only shows the domain FSMO roles, not the forest FSMO roles.
References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/mempson/2007/11/08/how-to-find-out-who-has-your-fsmo-roles/

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QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2016.
The domain contains a server named Serverl that has Microsoft Security Compliance Manager (SCM) 4.0 installed.
You export the baseline shown in the following exhibit.

You have a server named Server2 that is a member of a workgroup.
You copy the (2617e9b1-9672-492b-aefa-0505054848c2) folder to Server2.
You need to deploy the baseline settings to Server2.
What should you do?

A.    Download, install, and then fun the Lgpo.exe command.
B.    From Group Policy Management import a Group Policy object (GPO).
C.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Restore-GPO cmdlet.
D.    From Windows PowerShell, run the Import-GPO cmdlet.
E.    From a command prompt run the secedit.exe command and specify the /import parameter.

Answer: A
Explanation:
Server2 is a non-domain joined computer using the the GPO pack feature.
Source: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/solutionaccelerators/cc835245.aspx
LGPO.exe replaces the no-longer-maintained LocalGPO tool that shipped with the Security Compliance Manager (SCM).
https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/secguide/2016/01/21/lgpo-exe-local-group-policy-object-utility-v1-0/

QUESTION 22
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that use the same or simitar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has a shared folder named Share1.
You need to ensure that all access to Share1 uses SMB Encryption.
Which tool should you use?

A.    File Explorer
B.    Shared Folders
C.    Server Manager
D.    Disk Management
E.    Storage Explorer
F.    Computer Management
G.    System Configuration
H.    File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)>

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn551363(v=ws.11).aspx
See section “To enable SMB Encryption by using Server Manager”

QUESTION 23
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest functional level is Windows Server 2012.
The forest contains a single domain.
The domain contains multiple Hyper-V hosts.
You plan to deploy guarded hosts.
You deploy a new server named Server22 to a workgroup.
You need to configure Server22 as a Host Guardian Service server.
What should you do before you initialize the Host Guardian Service on Server22?

A.    Install the Active Directory Domain Services server role on Server22.
B.    Obtain a certificate.
C.    Raise the forest functional level.
D.    Join Server22 to the domain.

Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You create a Microsoft Operations Management Suite (OMS) workspace.
You need to connect several computers directly to the workspace.
Which two pieces of information do you require? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    the ID of the workspace
B.    the name of the workspace
C.    the URL of the workspace
D.    the key of the workspace

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/log-analytics/log-analytics-windows-agents

QUESTION 25
Note: This question b part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contow.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10.
The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2.
Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), link it to the Operations Users OU, and modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
Note: This question is part of a scries of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains mulbple Hyper-V hosts.
You need to deploy several critical line-of-business applications to the network; to meet the following requirements:

– The resources of the applications must be isolated from the physical host.
– Each application must be prevented from accessing the resources of the other applications.
– The configurations of the applications must be accessible only from the operating system that hosts the application.

Solution: You deploy a separate Windows container for each application.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Note: This question Is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has a volume named Volume1.
A central access policy named Policyl is deployed to the domain.
You need to apply Policyl to Volume1.
Which tool should you use?

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Note: This question Is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear In the review screen.

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10.
The relevant objects in the domain are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to assign User1 the right to restore files and folders on Server1 and Server2.
Solution: You create a Group Policy object (GPO), you link the GPO to the Servers OU, and then you modify the Users Rights Assignment in the GPO.
Does this meet the goat?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You install the Windows Server Update Services server role on a member server named Server1. Server1 runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to ensure that a user named Used can perform the following tasks:

– View the Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) configuration.
– Generate WSUS update reports.

The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
What should you do on Server1?

A.    Modify the permissions of the ReportWebService virtual folder from the WSUS Administration website.
B.    Add User1 to the WSUS Reporters local group.
C.    Add User1 to the WSUS Administrators local group.
D.    Run wsusutil.exe and specify the postinstall parameter.

Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question In the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question In this section, you will NOT be able to return to It. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

Yout network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
Computer1 connects to a home network and a corporate network.
The corporate network uses the 172.16.0.0/24 address space internally.
Computer1 runs an application named App1 that listens to port 8080.
You need to prevent connections to App1 when Computer1 is connected to the home network.
Solution: From Group Policy Management you create a software restriction policy.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A

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QUESTION 71
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 server that has SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) installed.
You plan to deploy new SSIS packages to the server. The SSIS packages use the Project Deployment Model together with parameters and Integration Services environment variables.
You need to configure the SQL Server environment to support these packages.
What should you do?

A.    Create SSIS configuration files for the packages.
B.    Create an Integration Services catalog.
C.    Install Data Quality Services.
D.    Install Master Data services.

Answer: B

QUESTION 72
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 server. When transaction logs grow, SQL Server must send an email message to the database administrators.
You need to configure SQL Server to send the email messages.
What should you configure?

A.    SQL Mail
B.    An Extended Events session
C.    Alerts and operators in SQL Server Agent
D.    Policies under Policy-Based Management

Answer: C

QUESTION 73
You administer two instances of Microsoft SQL Server 2016.
You deploy an application that uses a database on the named instance.
The application is unable to connect to the database on the named instance.
You need to ensure that the application can connect to the named instance.
What should you do?

A.    Use the Data Quality Client to configure the application.
B.    Start the SQL Server Browser Service.
C.    Use the Master Data Services Configuration Manager to configure the application.
D.    Start the SQL Server Integration Services Service.

Answer: B

QUESTION 74
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database.
Users report that an application that accesses the database displays an error, but the error does not provide meaningful information.
No entries are found in the SQL Server log or Windows event logs related to the error.
You need to identify the root cause of the issue by retrieving the error message.
What should you do?

A.    Create an Extended Events session by using the sqlserver.error_reported event.
B.    Create a SQL Profiler session to capture all ErrorLog and EventLog events.
C.    Flag all stored procedures for recompilation by using sp_recompile.
D.    Execute sp_who.

Answer: A

QUESTION 75
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 instance that contains a financial database hosted on a storage area network (SAN).
The financial database has the following characteristics:

– A data file of 2 terabytes is located on a dedicated LUN (drive D).
– A transaction log of 10 GB is located on a dedicated LUN (drive E).
– Drive D has 1 terabyte of free disk space.
– Drive E has 5 GB of free disk space.

The database is continually modified by users during business hours from Monday through Friday between 09:00 hours and 17:00 hours.
Five percent of the existing data is modified each day. The Finance department loads large CSV files into a number of tables each business day at
11:15 hours and 15:15 hours by using the BCP or BULK INSERT commands.
Each data load adds 3 GB of data to the database.
These data load operations must occur in the minimum amount of time. A full database backup is performed every Sunday at 10:00 hours.
Backup operations will be performed every two hours (11:00, 13:00, 15:00, and 17:00) during business hours.
You implement log shipping of the financial database to another SQL Server 2016 instance.
You decide to failover to this secondary database.
You need to ensure that all transactions will be replicated to the secondary database.
Which backup option should you use?

A.    Differential
B.    Transaction Log
C.    FULL
D.    SIMPLE
E.    SKIP
F.    RESTART
G.    STANDBY
H.    CHECKSUM
I.    DBO_ONLY
J.    COPY_ONLY
K.    NORECOVERY
L.    NO_CHECKSUM
M.    CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
N.    BULK_LOGGED

Answer: K

QUESTION 76
You use Microsoft SQL Server 2016 to write code for a transaction that contains several statements.
There is high contention between readers and writers on several tables used by your transaction.
You need to minimize the use of the tempdb space.
You also need to prevent reading queries from blocking writing queries.
Which isolation level should you use?

A.    SERIALIZABLE
B.    SNAPSHOT
C.    READ COMMITTED SNAPSHOT
D.    REPEATABLE READ

Answer: B

QUESTION 77
You plan to migrate the db to azure.
You verify that all objects are valid for azure sql database.
You need to ensure that users and logins are migrated to azure..
What should you do?

A.    Use the Copy Database wizard
B.    Use the Database Transfer wizard
C.    Use the SQL Management Studio to deploy the db to azure
D.    Back up the databasae from the local server and restore it to azure

Answer: CD

QUESTION 78
You create a new user named UserA.
You need to ensure that UserA is able to create SQL Server Agent jobs and to execute SQL Server Agent jobs.
To which role should you add UserA?

A.    Securityadmin
B.    RSExecRole
C.    SQLAgentUserRole
D.    DatabaseMailUserRole

Answer: C

QUESTION 79
You are the administrator of a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 server.
Some applications consume significant resources.
You need to manage the server workload by restricting resource-intensive applications.
You need to dynamically limit resource consumption.
What should you do?

A.    Set up Service Broker to ensure that applications are not allowed to consume more than the specified amount of resources.
B.    Configure Resource Pools, Workload Groups, and Classifier Function, and then enable the Resource Governor.
C.    Configure Extended Events to monitor and restrict resource limits allowed by each application type.
D.    Create a new Plan Guide with a Scope Type of sql and define the resource limits for each application.

Answer: B

QUESTION 80
You administer a Microsoft SQL Server 2016 database that includes a table named dbo.Log.
This table contains millions of records about user activity in an application. Records in dbo.Log that are more than 90 days old are purged nightly.
When records are purged, table locks are causing contention withinserts.
You need to be able to modify dbo.Log without requiring any changes to the applications that utilize dbo.Log.
Which type of solution should you use?

A.    Extended events
B.    Columnstore index
C.    Partitioned tables
D.    Read committed snapshot

Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
Hotspot Question
You need to open the firewall ports for use with SQL Server environment.
In table below, identify the firewall port that you must use for each service.
NOTE: Make only one selection in each column.

Answer:

Explanation:
Report Server: 80
By default, the report server listens for HTTP requests on port 80.

QUESTION 32
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have deployed a GS-series virtual machine (VM) in Microsoft Azure.
You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server.
You need to deploy a 30 megabyte (MB) database that requires 100 IOPS to be guaranteed while minimizing costs.
Which storage option should you use?

A.    Premium P10 disk storage
B.    Premium P20 disk storage
C.    Premium P30 disk storage
D.    Standard locally redundant disk storage
E.    Standard geo-redundant disk storage
F.    Standard zone redundant blob storage
G.    Standard locally redundant blob storage
H.    Standard geo-redundant blob storage

Answer: A

QUESTION 33
You plan to migrate a database To Microsoft Azure SQL Database.
The database requires 500 gigabytes (GB) of storage.
The database must support 50 concurrent logins.
You must minimize the cost associated with hosting the database.
You need to create the database.
Which pricing tier should you use?

A.    Standard S3 pricing tier
B.    Premium P2tier
C.    Standard S2 pricing tier
D.    Premium P1 tier

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets stated goals.

Your company plans to use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager templates for all future deployments of SQL Server on Azure virtual machines.
You need to create the templates.
Solution: You create the desired SQL Server configuration in an Azure Resource Group, then export the Resource Group template and save it to the Templates Library.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Azure Resource Manager template consists of JSON, and expressions that you can use to construct values for your deployment.
A good JSON editor, not a Resource Group template, can simplify the task of creating templates.
Note: In its simplest structure, a Azure Resource Manager template contains the following elements:
{
“$schema”: “http://schema.management.azure.com/schemas/2015-01-01/deploymentTemplate.json#”,
“contentVersion”: “”,
“parameters”: { },
“variables”: { },
“resources”: [ ],
“outputs”: { }
}
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-authoring-templates

QUESTION 35
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series. Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.

You have deployed several GS-series virtual machines (VMs) in Microsoft Azure.
You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server in a development environment.
Each VM has a dedicated disk for backups.
You need to backup a database to the local disk on a VM.
The backup must be replicated to another region.
Which storage option should you use?

A.    Premium P10 disk storage
B.    Premium P20 diskstorage
C.    Premium P30 disk storage
D.    Standard locally redundant disk storage
E.    Standard geo-redundant disk storage
F.    Standard zone redundant blob storage
G.    Standard locally redundant blob storage
H.    Standard geo-redundant blob storage

Answer: E
Explanation:
Note: SQL Database automatically creates a database backups and uses Azure read- access geo-redundant storage (RA-GRS) to provide geo-redundancy. These backups are created automatically and at no additional charge. You don’t need to do anything to make them happen. Database backups are an essential part of any business continuity and disaster recovery strategy because they protect your data from accidental corruption or deletion.
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-automated-backups

QUESTION 36
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution. Determine whether the solution meets stated goals.

Your company plans to use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager templates for all future deployments of SQL Server on Azure virtual machines.
You need to create the templates.
Solution: You use Visual Studio to create a JSON template that defines the deployment and configuration settings for the SQL Server environment.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
Azure Resource Manager template consists of JSON, not XAML, and expressions that you can use to construct values for your deployment.
A good JSON editor can simplify the task of creating templates.
Note: In its simplest structure, an Azure Resource Manager template contains the following elements:
{
“$schema”: “http://schema.management.azure.com/schemas/2015-01-01/deploymentTemplate.json#”,
“contentVersion”: “”,
“parameters”: { },
“variables”: { },
“resources”: [ ],
“outputs”: { }
}
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/resource-group-authoring-templates

QUESTION 37
You plan to deploy an on-premises SQL Server 2014 database to Azure SQL Database.
You have the following requirements:

– Maximum database size of 500 GB
– A point-in-time-restore of 35 days
– Maximum database transaction units (DTUs) of 500

You need to choose the correct service tier and performance level.
Which service tier should you choose?

A.    Standard S3
B.    Premium P4
C.     Standard SO
D.     Basic

Answer: B
Explanation:
You should choose Premium P4. The Premium tier is the highest Azure SQL Database tier offered. This tier is used for databases and application that require the highest level of performance and recovery. The P4 level supports a maximum of 500 DTUs, a maximum database size of 500 GB, and a point-in-time-restore to any point in the last 35 days.
You should not choose Basic. The Basic service tier only supports a maximum database size of 2 GB, a maximum of 5 DTUs, and a point-in-time-restore of 7 days.
You should not choose Standard SO. The Standard tier with a performance level of SO only supports a maximum database size of 250 GB. a maximum of 10 DTUs, and a point-in-time-restore of 35 days.
You should not choose Standard S3. The Standard tier with a performance level of S3 only supports a maximum database size of 250 GB. a maximum of 100 DTUs, and a point-in-time-restore of 35 days.

QUESTION 38
You are the database administrator for your company.
Your company has one main office and two branch offices.
You plan to create three databases named DB1, DB2, and DB3 that will be hosted on one Azure SQL Database server.
You have the following requirements:

– The main office must be able to connect to all three databases.
– The branch offices must be able to connect to DB2 and DB3.
– The branch offices must not be able to access DB1.

You need to configure transparent data encryption (TDE) for DB1.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Run CREATE CERTIFICATE certl WITH Subject = TDE Cert1 on DB1.
B.    Connect to DB1.
C.     Run ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET ENCRYPTION ON;.
D.     Connect to the master database.
E.    Run CREATE MASTER KEY on the master database.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
You should connect to DB1. To encrypt DB1, you connect directly to DB1.
When you connect to DB1. You use your dbmanager or administrative credentials.
You should run ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET ENCRYPTION ON.
You use the ALTER DATABASE DB1 SET ENCRYPTION ON statement to encrypt the database. This is the statement that turns on TDE for Azure SQL Database.
You should not run CREATE MASTER KEY on the master database.
You would execute CREATE MASTER KEY when you have to encrypt an on-premises database.
You should not run CREATE CERTIFICATE certl WITH Subject = TDE Cert’ on DB1.
You do not need to create a certificate to encrypt an Azure SQL database.
This would be a part of the solution when you encrypt an on-premises database.
You should not connect to the master database.
To encrypt DB1, you need to connect directly to DB1. not to the master database.

QUESTION 39
You manage an on-premises, multi-tier application that has the following configuration:

– Two SQL Server 2012 databases named SQL1 and SQL2
– Two application servers named AppServerl and AppServer2 that run IIS

You plan to move your application to Azure.
You need to ensure that during an Azure update cycle or a hardware failure, the application remains available.
Which two deployment configurations should you implement? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Deploy AppServerl and AppServer2 in a single availability set.
B.    Deploy all servers in a single availability set.
C.     Deploy SQL1 and AppServerl in a single availability set.
D.     Deploy SQL2 and AppServer2 in a single availability set.
E.    Deploy SQL1 and SQL2 in a single availability set.

Answer: AE
Explanation:
You should deploy SQL1 and SQL2 in a single availability set. Using availability sets allows you to build in redundancy for your Azure services. By grouping related virtual machines and services (tiers) into an availability set (in this case, deploying both of your databases into an availability set), you ensure that if there is a planned or unplanned outage, your services will remain available. At the most basic level, virtual machines in an availability set are put into a different fault domain and update domain. An update domain allows virtual machines to have updates installed and then the virtual machines are rebooted together. If you have two virtual machines in an availability set, each in its own update domain, a rebooting of one server does not bring down all of the servers in a given tier. A fault domain operates in the same manner, so if there is a physical problem with a server, rack, network, or other service, both machines are separated, and services will continue.
You should deploy AppServerl and AppServer2 in a single availability set. Using availability sets allows to build in redundancy for your Azure services. By grouping related virtual machines and services (tiers) an availability set (in this case, deploying both of your application servers into an availability set), ensure that if there is a planned or unplanned outage, your services will remain available.
You should not deploy SQL1 and AppServerl in a single availability set. Microsoft recommends grouping similar sets of services in an availability set. This will help ensure that each tier of your application is protected by an availability set. SQL1 and AppServerl provide different services, so they should not be grouped together.
You should not deploy SQL2 and AppServer2 in a single availability set. SQL2 and AppServer2 provide different services, so they should not be grouped together.
You should not deploy all servers in a single availability set. This will not provide the fault tolerance needed, as all machines would be rebooted (or suffer a hardware failure) together.

QUESTION 40
You are the database administrator in your company.
You plan to create 10 identical environments that use SQL Server 2016 as a database engine. Each environment has the following custom requirements:

– Three user databases must be preinstalled.
– The tempdb database must contain eight data files that are 1024 MB each.
– Trace flag 2371 must be turned at the instance level.

The solution must meet the following requirements:

– The instance must be preconfigured.
– No other database features are required in the future.
– The solution must use the minimum administrative effort.

You need to prepare the environments.
What should you do?

A.    Provision 10 Azure virtual machines that each contain SQL Server 2016, installed by using the default settings.
B.    Create an installation configuration file and perform unattended installations of SQL Server 2016.
C.     Create a virtual machine template by using a prepared instance of SQL Server 2016.
D.     Create a virtual machine template by using a complete instance of SQL Server 2016.

Answer: D
Explanation:
You should create a virtual machine template by using a complete instance of SQL Server 2016. You use the sysprep tool to prepare a complete instance of SQL Server 2016. By using a complete instance, SQL Server, the network, and the users are all created, and the system cannot be reconfigured during the installation process.
You should not create a virtual machine template by using a prepared instance of SQL Server 2016. A virtual machine template that contains a prepared instance of SQL Server could be modified during the installation process. For example, some features could be added or removed during the installation process. The prepared instance contains a preconfigured version of SQL Server without network and user configurations.
You should not create an installation configuration file and perform unattended installations of SQL Server 2016. This could be a valid option, but you would need to prepare 10 installations, and this would require a lot of effort. There are also some other administrative actions that must be performed that could also increase the amount of effort required, such as user database configuration.
You should not provision 10 Azure virtual machines that each contain SQL Server 2016, installed by using the default settings. A virtual machine created by using the Azure library provides you with a standard installation, and the requirements call for a custom installation. The instance will need some specific parameters for your custom installation. Therefore, you would have to customize each Azure virtual machine.

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)

A.    The switch will not forward a frame with this destination MAC address.
B.    The MAC address of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be added to the MAC Address Table.
C.    The MAC address of ffff.ffff.ffff will be added to the MAC address table.
D.    The frame will be forwarded out all active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
E.    The frame will be forwarded out fa0/0 and fa0/1 only.
F.    The frame will be forwarded out all the ports on the switch.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
If the switch already has the MAC address in its table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in its MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 22
On a Cisco switch, which protocol determines if an attached VoIP phone is from Cisco or from another vendor?

A.    RTP
B.    TCP
C.    CDP
D.    UDP

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Cisco Unified IP Phone uses CDP to communicate information such as auxiliary VLAN ID, per port power management details, and Quality of Service (QoS) configuration information with the Cisco Catalyst switch.

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to establish a successful connection from Host A to switch SW-A through router RT-A?

A.    VLAN 1 on RT-A
B.    IP routing on SW-A
C.    default gateway on SW-A
D.    crossover cable connecting SW-A and RT-A

Answer: C
Explanation:
In order for the switch to reach networks that are not local, such as networks attached to different interfaces of the router, it will need to set its default gateway to be the IP address of the attached router.

QUESTION 24
A switch receives a frame on one of its ports. There is no entry in the MAC address table for the destination MAC address. What will the switch do with the frame?

A.    drop the frame
B.    forward it out of all ports except the one that received it
C.    forward it out of all ports
D.    store it until it learns the correct port

Answer: B
Explanation:
Understanding this concept is prime for understanding that when switch receives the data frame from the host not having the MAC address already in the MAC table, it will add the MAC address to the source port on the MAC address table and sends the data frame. If the switch already has the MAC address in it’s table for the destination, it will forward the frame directly to the destination port. If it was not already in it’s MAC table, then they frame would have been flooded out all ports except for the port that it came from.

QUESTION 25
At which layer of the OSI model does the protocol that provides the information that is displayed by the show cdp neighbors command operate?

A.    application
B.    transport
C.    network
D.    physical
E.    data link

Answer: E
Explanation:
CDP is a device discovery protocol that runs over Layer 2 (the data link layer) on all Cisco- manufactured devices (routers, bridges, access servers, and switches) and allows network management applications to discover Cisco devices that are neighbors of already known devices. With CDP, network management applications can learn the device type and the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent address of neighboring devices running lower-layer, transparent protocols.

QUESTION 26
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)

A.    increases the number of collision domains
B.    decreases the number of collision domains
C.    implements VLAN
D.    decreases the number of broadcast domains
E.    uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 27
Which two commands will display the current IP address and basic Layer 1 and 2 status of an interface? (Choose two.)

A.    router#show version
B.    router#show ip interface
C.    router#show protocols
D.    router#show controllers
E.    router#show running-config

Answer: BC

QUESTION 28
Which two characteristics describe the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)

A.    layer 3 support
B.    port security
C.    redundant components
D.    VLANs
E.    PoE

Answer: BD
Explanation:
The primary function of an access-layer is to provide network access to the end user.
The hardware and software attributes of the access layer that support high availability include security services for additional security against unauthorized access to the network through the use of tools such as 802.1x, port security, DHCP snooping, Dynamic ARP Inspection, and IP Source Guard.

QUESTION 29
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic. Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?

A.    drop the frame
B.    send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C.    return the frame to Host B
D.    send an ARP request for Host C
E.    send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F.    record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of assigning an IP address to a switch?

A.    provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B.    allows remote management of the switch
C.    allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D.    ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

Answer: B
Explanation:
Switch is a layer 2 device and doesn’t use network layer for packet forwarding. The IP address may be used only for administrative purposes such as Telnet access or for network management purposes.

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QUESTION 21
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B.    the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
C.    the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
D.    the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E.    the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?

A.    virtual-template interface
B.    DHCP
C.    dialer interface
D.    AAA authentication

Answer: A
Explanation:
PPPoE is configured as a point to point connection between two Ethernet ports. As a tunneling protocol, PPPoE is used as an effective foundation for the transport of IP packets at the network layer. IP is overlaid over a PPP connection and uses PPP as a virtual dial up connection between points on the network. From the user’s perspective, a PPPoE session is initiated by using connection software on the client machine or router. PPPoE session initiation involves the identification of the Media Access Control (MAC) address of the remote device.
This process, also known as PPPoE discovery.

QUESTION 23
Which process is associated with spanning-tree convergence?

A.    determining the path cost
B.    electing designated ports
C.    learning the sender bridge ID
D.    assigning the port ID

Answer: B
Explanation:
Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, Root Switch is elected and Root Ports, Designated Ports and Non-Designated ports in all switches are selected. At Converged condition, the Root Ports and the Designated ports are in forwarding state, and all other ports are in blocking state.

QUESTION 24
Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?

A.    It reduces the need for a backup data center.
B.    It can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
C.    It enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
D.    It eliminates the need for a GSS.

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more switches?

A.    multicast
B.    STP
C.    VTP
D.    split-horizon

Answer: C
Explanation:
“VTP allows a network manager to configure a switch so that it will propagate VLAN configurations to other switches in the network”
VTP minimizes misconfigurations and configuration inconsistencies that can cause problems, such as duplicate VLAN names or incorrect VLAN-type specifications. VTP helps you simplify management of the VLAN database across multiple switches. VTP is a Cisco-proprietary protocol and is available on most of the Cisco switches.

QUESTION 26
How can you disable DTP on a switch port?

A.    Configure the switch port as a trunk.
B.    Add an interface on the switch to a channel group.
C.    Change the operational mode to static access.
D.    Change the administrative mode to access.

Answer: D

QUESTION 27
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)

A.    autonomous system number
B.    version number
C.    router ID
D.    subnet mask
E.    IP address

Answer: AE
Explanation:
Use the show ip bgp neighbors (registered customers only) command to display information about the TCP and Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) connections and verify if the BGP peer is established. The output of the show ip bgp neighbors command below shows the BGP state as ‘Established’, which indicates that the BGP peer relationship has been established successfully.
R1-AGS# show ip bgp neighbors | include BGP
BGP neighbor is 10.10.10.2, remote AS 400, internal link BGP version 4, remote router ID 2.2.2.2
BGP state = Established, up for 00:04:20
BGP table version 1, neighbor version 1
R1-AGS#
The show ip bgp neighbors command has been used above with the modifier | include BGP. This makes the output more readable by filtering the the command output and displaying the relevant parts only.
In addition, the show ip bgp summary (registered customers only) command can also be used to display the status of all BGP connections, as shown below.
R1-AGS(9)# show ip bgp summary
BGP router identifier 10.1.1.2, local AS number 400 BGP table version is 1, main routing table version 1
Neighbor V AS MsgRcvd MsgSent TblVer InQ OutQ Up/Down State/PfxRcd 10.10.10.2 4 400 3 3 1 0 0 00:00:26 0

QUESTION 28
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?

A.    Ethernet
B.    dialer
C.    serial
D.    Frame Relay

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
What is the default VLAN on an access port?

A.    0
B.    1
C.    10
D.    1024

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?

A.    Ports are untrusted by default.
B.    VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C.    Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D.    Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E.    Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.

Answer: E
Explanation:
Frames received from users in the administratively-defined VLANs are classified or tagged for transmission to other devices. Based on rules that you define, a unique identifier (the tag) is inserted in each frame header before it is forwarded. The tag is examined and understood by each device before any broadcasts or transmissions to other switches, routers, or end stations. When the frame reaches the last switch or router, the tag is removed before the frame is sent to the target end station. VLANs that are assigned on trunk or access ports without identification or a tag are called native or untagged frames. For IEEE 802.1Q frames with tag information, the priority value from the header frame is used. For native frames, the default priority of the input port is used. Each port on the switch has a single receive queue buffer (the ingress port) for incoming traffic. When an untagged frame arrives, it is assigned the value of the port as its port default priority. You assign this value by using the CLI or CMS. A tagged frame continues to use its assigned CoS value when it passes through the ingress port.

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QUESTION 21
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network? (Choose two.)

A.    802.1d
B.    VTP
C.    802.1q
D.    STP
E.    SAP

Answer: AD
Explanation:
This question is to examine the STP protocol.
STP (802.1d) is used to prevent Layer 2 loops.
802.1q is a Frame Relay protocol which belongs to VLAN.
SAP is a concept of the OSI model.

QUESTION 22
Which switch would STP choose to become the root bridge in the selection process?

A.    32768: 11-22-33-44-55-66
B.    32768: 22-33-44-55-66-77
C.    32769: 11-22-33-44-55-65
D.    32769: 22-33-44-55-66-78

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthernet to segment existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the switch?

A.    More collision domains will be created.
B.    IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C.    More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D.    An additional broadcast domain will be created.

Answer: D
Explanation:
Each VLAN creates its own broadcast domain. Since this is a full duplex switch, each port is a separate collision domain.

QUESTION 24
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
B.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same
network infrastructure.
C.    A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same
network infrastructure.
D.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing
their size.
E.    Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing
their size.
F.    VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
G.    Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1Q trunks.

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
Benefits of VLANs
VLAN is a network structure which allows users to communicate while in different locations by sharing one multicast domain and a single broadcast. They provide numerous networking benefits and have become popular in the market. For instance, it helps reduce administrative costs when users are geographically dispersed.
1. Inexpensive
The popularity of VLANs is due to the fact that changes, adds, and moves can be attained simply by making necessary configurations on the VLAN port. Time-consuming, re-addressing, and host reconfigurations is now a thing of the past, because network configuration can be made at ease when need arises.
2. Better management
A VLAN typically solve the scalability issues that exist in a large network by breaking the main domain into several VLAN groups or smaller broadcast configurations, thereby encourage better control of multicast traffic as well as broadcast domains.
3. Improves network security
High-security can be positioned in different VLAN groups to ensure that non-members cannot receive their broadcasts. On the other hand, a router is added and workgroups relocated into centralized locations.
4. Enhances performance
A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
5. Segment multiple networks
VLANs are typically used to achieve multiple purposes. They are popularly used to reduce broadcast traffic. Each VLAN creates a separate, smaller broadcast domain.
6. Better administration
VLANs facilitate grouping of multiple geographical stations. When VLAN users move to another physical location, the network does not have to be configured.

QUESTION 25
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

A.    802.3ad
B.    802.1w
C.    802.1D
D.    802.1Q

Answer: D
Explanation:
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802.1Q) to be used.

QUESTION 26
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three.)

A.    They increase the size of collision domains.
B.    They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C.    They can enhance network security.
D.    They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E.    They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F.    They simplify switch administration.

Answer: BCE
Explanation:
When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same -> VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> . VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the network -> .
VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision domains ->
VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> . VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration ->

QUESTION 27
Refer to the exhibit. A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected to SwitchA . Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?

A.    SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
B.    SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
C.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
D.    SwitchB(config)# ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown
E.    SwitchB(config)# ip route 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)# interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)# ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)# no shutdown

Answer: C
Explanation:
To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch. Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure). In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default gateway. This default gateway is used to forward traffic originating from the switch only, not to forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.

QUESTION 28
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two.)

A.    when they receive a special token
B.    when there is a carrier
C.    when they detect no other devices are sending
D.    when the medium is idle
E.    when the server grants access

Answer: CD
Explanation:
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.

QUESTION 29
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml#states

QUESTION 30
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a given Cisco switch interface? (Choose two.)

A.    show interface trunk
B.    show interface interface
C.    show ip interface brief
D.    show interface vlan
E.    show interface switchport

Answer: AE

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QUESTION 11
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?

A.    Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B.    Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C.    Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D.    Discard the frame.

Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A network design team has decided to use a standard protocol to consolidate the Ethernet and San data using the existing Nexus switches.
Which I/O technology can satisfy this need?

A.    FCoE
B.    IEEE 802. 1AB
C.    SCS
D.    AToM

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What are two physical components of the Cisco UCS B-Series server? (Choose two.)

A.    mezzanine slots
B.    power supplies (maximum of two)
C.    lockable front door
D.    redundant hot swappable fans
E.    CPU sockets

Answer: AE

QUESTION 14
A network engineer wants to apply for new license key file.
Which command should be used to obtain the switch serial number?

A.    MDS-A# show license serial-number
B.    MDS- A# show running-config | include serial-number
C.    MDS- A# show host-id
D.    MDS- A# show license host-id

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two)

A.    Virtual Port Channel
B.    Layer 3
C.    Virtual Device Contexts
D.    iSCSI
E.    Fibre Channel

Answer: BC

QUESTION 16
What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre devices behind a single FC address?

A.    Fiber Channel over Ethernet
B.    N-Port Virtualization
C.    Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop
D.    N-Port Identification Virtualization

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
An engineer implemented a new VSAN and examined the F-mode trunks connecting an upstream switch.
The engineer noticed that the new VSAN is stuck in initializing.
Which two options explain why this is happening? (Choose two.)

A.    A device has not attempted to log in the ne VSAN across the trunk.
B.    Only the primary VSAN lists as active while subordinate VSANs stay initializing.
C.    The trunk must be disabled an re-enabled to join the new VSAN.
D.    Only the secondary VSAN lists as active while primary VSANs stay initializing.
E.    The new VSAN has not been configured in the upstream switch.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)

A.    FD00::2
B.    192.168.2.2
C.    FF05::2
D.    226.10.10.10
E.    240.1.0.1

Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Which two options are file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.)

A.    Telnet
B.    CIFS
C.    Fibre Channel
D.    NFS
E.    iSCSI

Answer: BD

QUESTION 20
A SAN administrator recently added a new zone to the VSAN 2 zone set named zone set2, but the server is still unable to access the shared storage.
Which command will resolve this issue?

A.    zoneset activate zoneset2
B.    copy running-config startup-config
C.    zone default-zone permit vsan 2
D.    zone copy active-zoneset full-zoneset

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/configuration/guide/cli/CLIConfigurationGuide/zone.html?dtid=osscdc000283
“If zoning is not activated, all devices are members of the default zone.”
“Changes to a zone set do not take effect in a full zone set until you activate it.”

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QUESTION 11
FCoE interfaces are defined as which two port types? (Choose two )

A.    VZ Port
B.    VE Port
C.    VF Port
D.    VI Port
E.    VS Port

Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
A customer has two Cisco UCS 6248 Fabric Interconnects in a cluster connected to one Cisco UCS 5108 Chassis via.

– 2 ports from the primary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module A
– 2 parts from secondary fabric interconnect to chassis 1, I/O module B

The customer wants to ensure maximum redundancy and bandwidth.
Within Cisco UCS Manager, how should the chassis discovery policy grouping be configured before the new chassis is discovered?

A.    4-link, none
B.    2-link, none
C.    2-link, port channel
D.    4-link, port channel

Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which statement about EPGs is true?

A.    EPGs can both provide and consume a contract.
B.    EPGs can provide, but cannot consume, a contract
C.    EPGs cm consume, but cannot provide, a contract
D.    EPGs neither provide or consume contracts

Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which privilege is assigned by default to the UCS Manager Storage Administrator user role?

A.    service-storage-security-config
B.    service-admin-config
C.    service-admin
D.    service-profile-storage

Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Which two options are control plan protocols? (Choose two)

A.    BGP
B.    DARP
C.    NAT
D.    SMTP
E.    CoPP

Answer: AD

QUESTION 16
Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE?

A.    2232TM
B.    2148T
C.    22497P
D.    2232PP
E.    2248T

Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which Layer 3 protocol is used within the ACI fabric?

A.    OpenFlow
B.    EIGRP
C.    OSPF
D.    IS-IS

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are two features of a Cisco Nexus 2232TM Fabric Extender? (Choose two )

A.    10 Gigabit uplinks
B.    RJ45 host interfaces
C.    unified ports
D.    4 uplink ports
E.    side-to-back airflow

Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
What are two key components of the Cisco Application Centric infrastructure architecture? (Choose two )

A.    access switch
B.    Application-Centric Infrastructure Controller
C.    distribution switch
D.    spine switch
E.    Application Policy Infrastructure Controller

Answer: DE

QUESTION 20
Which tool organizes workflows to automate simple and complex actions on infrastructure?

A.    Cisco UCS Manager
B.    Cisco UCS Director
C.    Cisco DCNM
D.    Cisco UCS server

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
A Citrix Administrator is preparing to deploy 500 Windows 10 Virtual Desktops by using Machine Creation Services (MCS).

How much storage space, at a minimum, needs to be allocated to the Identity Disks in this environment?

A.    32 Gb
B.    8 Gb
C.    16 Gb
D.    4 Gb

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has a current StoreFront store that supports 150 users who have full access to all enterprise resources. The administrator needs to create a new StoreFront store for contractors who will work onsite for two months. The contractors need access to specific resources but will NOT be Active Directory users.

Which option should the administrator select while creating the Store for contractors?

A.    HTTP Basic
B.    Unauthenticated
C.    Pass-through
D.    SmartCard

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When using Citrix Director, which three parameters can a Citrix Administrator use to search for a session? (Choose three.)

A.    Machine
B.    Delivery Group
C.    Application Name
D.    User
E.    Endpoint

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 4
Which FlexCast delivery model can a Citrix Administrator use to enhance an existing physical desktop deployment?

A.    Published applications
B.    Hosted shared desktop
C.    VM hosted applications
D.    Remote PC access

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A Citrix Administrator wants to enable Citrix XML Service trust for user access within a XenDesktop infrastructure.

Which step does the administrator need to take to complete this task?

A.    Configure the appropriate XML Service Trust settings using HDX policy within Citrix Studio.
B.    Run the “Set-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $true” PowerShell command from within a Controller.
C.    Run the “Set-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $true” PowerShell command from within a VDA.
D.    Run the “Get-BrokerSite -TrustRequestsSentToTheXMLServicePort $true” PowerShell command from within a Controller.

Answer: C

QUESTION 6
When using Citrix Director to troubleshoot an issue with a user accessing multiple published applications, a Citrix Administrator will use the _______ to find the application causing the issue. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A.    Session Selector
B.    Machine Details
C.    User Search
D.    Activity Manager

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Administrator needs to get a list of all published applications being used along with associated user names in a XenApp environment.

Which cmdlet can the administrator execute to accomplish this task?

A.    Get-BrokerApplicationInstance
B.    Get-BrokerApplication
C.    Get-BrokerSessionLinger
D.    Get-BrokerSession

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.citrix.com/zh-cn/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-6/cds-sdk-wrapper-rho/xad-commands/citrix-broker-admin-v2-wrapper-xd76/get-brokerapplication-xd76.html

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has configured two sites: Site A and Site
B. Each site uses the same license server named LicenseServer1. The administrator has the following additional information:

Site A is configured to check out Enterprise licenses. Site B is configured to check out Platinum licenses. LicenseServer1 contains both Enterprise and Platinum licenses.

The Enterprise licenses have become exhausted, and the next user from Site A attempts to launch a published desktop.

What will be the outcome of this action?

A.    The application will launch successfully with Platinum licenses checked out.
B.    The application will launch successfully, and Site A will enter the Supplement Grace Period.
C.    The user will be unable to launch the application, and the error message “No resources available” will appear.
D.    The application will launch successfully, and Site B will enter the Supplement Grace Period.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 98
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a table named Products that stores information about products your company sells. The table has a column named ListPrice that stores retail pricing information for products.

Some products are used only internally by the company. Records for these products are maintained in the Products table for inventory purposes. The price for each of these products is $0.00. Customers are not permitted to order these products.

You need to increase the list price for products that cost less than $100 by 10 percent. You must only increase pricing for products that customers are permitted to order.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Products with a price of $0.00 would also be increased.

QUESTION 99
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a table named Products that stores information about products your company sells. The table has a column named ListPrice that stores retail pricing information for products.

You need to increase the list price for products that cost less than $100 by 10 percent. You must only increase pricing for products that customers are permitted to order.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Products with a price of $0.00 would also be increased.

QUESTION 100
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a table named Products that stores information about products your company sells. The table has a column named ListPrice that stores retail pricing information for products.

You need to increase the list price for products that cost less than $100 by 10 percent. You must only increase pricing for products that customers are permitted to order.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
Products with a price between $0.00 and $100 will be increased, while products with a price of $0.00 would not be increased.

QUESTION 101
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a table that was created by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

The Products table includes the data shown in the following table:

TotalUnitPrice is calculated by using the following formula:

TotalUnitPrice = UnitPrice * (UnitsInStock + UnitsOnOrder)

You need to ensure that the value returned for TotalUnitPrice for ProductB is equal to 600.00.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
ISNULL ( check_expression , replacement_value )
Arguments:
check_expression
Is the expression to be checked for NULL. check_expression can be of any type.
replacement_value
Is the expression to be returned if check_expression is NULL. replacement_value must be of a type that is implicitly convertible to the type of check_expresssion.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/functions/isnull-transact-sql

QUESTION 102
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a table that was created by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

The Products table includes the data shown in the following table:

TotalUnitPrice is calculated by using the following formula:

TotalUnitPrice = UnitPrice * (UnitsInStock + UnitsOnOrder)

You need to ensure that the value returned for TotalUnitPrice for ProductB is equal to 600.00.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: A
Explanation:
COALESCE evaluates the arguments in order and returns the current value of the first expression that initially does not evaluate to NULL.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/language-elements/coalesce-transact-sql

QUESTION 103
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. You will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a table that was created by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

The Products table includes the data shown in the following table:

TotalUnitPrice is calculated by using the following formula:

TotalUnitPrice = UnitPrice * (UnitsInStock + UnitsOnOrder)

You need to ensure that the value returned for TotalUnitPrice for ProductB is equal to 600.00.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Answer: B
Explanation:
The NULL value in the UnitsOnOrder field would cause a runtime error.

QUESTION 104
You have a database that stores information about server and application errors. The database contains the following table:

Servers

Errors

You need to return all unique error log messages and the server where the error occurs most often.

Which Transact-SQL statement should you run?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Answer: A

QUESTION 105
You have a database that includes the following tables.

HumanResources.Employee

Sales.SalesPerson

The HumanResources.Employee table has 2,500 rows, and the Sales.SalesPerson table has 2,000 rows.

You review the following Transact-SQL statement:

You need to determine the performance impact of the query.

How many times will a lookup occur on the primary key index on the Sales.SalesPerson table?

A.    200
B.    2,000
C.    2,500
D.    5,500

Answer: C

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