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[January 2018] Lead2pass Exam Collection MB6-892 Dumps And MB6-892 New Questions 56q

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QUESTION 1
You are creating new sales agreements for a new customer.
The commitment type is configured to be product quantity commitment.
Which two settings are available for this type of agreement and unavailable for other types of agreements? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Amount
B.    Unit
C.    Discount
D.    Quantity

Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
You are the purchasing agent for your company.
You need to create a request for quotation (RFQ) for a product that is not in the item drop- down list.
Which type of line item should you create?

A.    Category
B.    Open
C.    Solicitation
D.    Item

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You are purchasing agent for your company.
You create a request for quotation (RFQ) and send it to vendors.
You need to categorize the responses you receive form the vendors.
What should you set up?

A.    Purchase agreement classification
B.    Result view
C.    Reason codes
D.    Vendor reply status.

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You work for an apparel company.
You create several attributes to track information about products in the Shirt category.
From which two areas of Microsoft Dynamic AX Distribution and Trade can you assign the attribute values? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    the all products and product masters page
B.    the category hierarchy page
C.    the retail category hierarchy page
D.    the released products page

Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
You are working with a vendor who supplies you with apparel and spotting good products.
You are negotiating a new purchase agreement with the vendor.
The agreement terms you have arranged with the vendor are for a 3 percent discount on all of the sporting good products when the order volume over the next month is at least 50.000 USD
Which commitment type should you use?

A.    product quantity
B.    product value
C.    product category value
D.    value

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
You are advising a client’s accounting department.
They want to know when the sales demand is satisfied and the physical inventory is relieved for stock items.
Which action Indicates this to them?

A.    Invoice a sales order.
B.    Create a sales order.
C.    Post a packing slip
D.    Pick a sales order.

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are implementing Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for a new customer.
You need to configure the costing methodology to be a Weighted Average for all items.
What should you configure?

A.    product dimension group
B.    item model group
C.    tracking dimension group
D.    item group

Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You create a purchase requisition and add requisition lines.
What is the status of the purchase requisition before submitting it to the workflow?

A.    In review
B.    In process
C.    Draft
D.    Approved

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are training a new employee They need to Know the items that are required fen posting an invoice register.
What are the two required items? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Number allocation at posting
B.    Vendor account number
C.    Transaction text
D.    Vendor invoice number

Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
You are the controller for an entertainment company.
In a meeting with the customer service manger you learn that several customers do not realize that they need cables when buying speakers.
The customer service representatives want the ability to add the cost of the cables to the sales order after asking the customer.
You decide that the cost of the cable should be added as charges to the sales order and not as a separate Sales order line.
How should you configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade automatically add this charge for those customers wanting them based on the sale order line for number of speakers sold?

A.    Set up a charges code for a fixed amount.
B.    Set up a charge for places.
C.    Set up an auto charge.
D.    Set up an item charge related to the speakers.

Answer: C

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[January 2018] Free Download Lead2pass Microsoft MB6-893 VCE And PDF Dumps 103q

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QUESTION 1
You are creating a budget register entry.
You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.
What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?

A.    enter recurrence
B.    transfer balances
C.    allocate across periods
D.    allocate across dimensions

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A new customer requests to pay their bills in installments, and your company agrees to this request.
You need to set up the customer record so that the payments can be processed correctly.
What should be added to the customer record?

A.    payment schedule
B.    allocation rule
C.    terms of payment
D.    method of payment

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
An organization has a policy of charging the same depreciation amount for the fixed asset in each de-preciation period.
You need to configure depreciation according to this policy.
Which depreciation method should you use?

A.    Straight line service life
B.    Consumption
C.    Reducing balance
D.    Factor

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A controller wants to run a Trial Balance report by main account and department.
What does the controller need to set up so that Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials will allow this selection during the generation of the Trial Balance report?

A.    advanced rule structures
B.    derived financial hierarchies
C.    financial dimension sets
D.    accounts structures

Answer: C
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa571570.aspx

QUESTION 5
You are creating a new budget and realize that you need to allocate a certain percentage of the total budget amount across defined periods.
In order to do this on the budget register entry, you need to define the percentage that will be allocated in each period.
What should you set up in order to achieve this goal?

A.    budget transfer
B.    period allocation key
C.    budget allocation term
D.    budget cycle

Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are a credit manager.
You want to set up a process in your system to send customers a notification of their balances due if the balance fails to clear within the due date.
You also need to apply additional fees to charge the customer on the balance due as per your company policies.
What should you do?

A.    Generate a report for customer transactions.
B.    Generate a customer accounts statement.
C.    Generate an internal accounts statement.
D.    Generate a collection letter note.

Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your company is considering tracking budgets by Account, Department, and Cost Center dimensions.
There is a requirement to prevent exceeding the budgeted amounts for each Department but not for each Cost Center.
Which three actions must be performed to allow budget control for Accounts and Department, and basic budgeting by Account, Departments, and Cost Center, before budget control is enabled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budgeting dimensions.
B.    Select the main accounts for budget control.
C.    Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budget control dimensions.
D.    Select only “Department” as a budget control dimension.
E.    Select only “MainAccount,” “Department” and “CostCenter” as budgeting dimensions.

Answer: BDE
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh242453.aspx

QUESTION 8
You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.
You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.
What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.
B.    Decide which matrix fields to creat.
C.    Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.
D.    Decide which fields to use for the header.
E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
You need to consolidate multiple subsidiary company transactions into the consolidation company in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials.
You need to modify the financial dimensions at the time of consolidation, such as including the originating company code on each transaction.
When performing a consolidation in Dynamics AX, which three specifications can be selected for each dimension? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    group dimension
B.    main accounts
C.    dimension
D.    operating units
E.    company accounts

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
You are setting up an allocation rule and distributing amounts based on revenue dollars.
You need to share the cost of corporate advertising expenses across all departments and base each department’s sales in proportion to the total sales of all departments.
Which allocation should you choose?

A.    Fixed Percentage
B.    Equally
C.    Fixed Weight
D.    Basis

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff395364.aspx

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following would a technician do to monitor remote traffic through an access point?

A.    Enable an SNMP agent
B.    Enable network mapping
C.    Set monitoring SSID
D.    Select WPA2

Answer: A
Explanation:
Large networks with hundreds or thousands of nodes are difficult to manage without a large staff to monitor every computer. SNMP, which is widely used in local area networks (LANs), lets you monitor network nodes from a management host. You can monitor network devices such as servers, workstations, printers, routers, bridges, and hubs, as well as services such as Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) or Windows Internet Name Service (WINS).

QUESTION 2
Which of the following commands can a network technician use to check whether the DNS server for a given domain is reachable?

A.    nmap
B.    nbtstat
C.    dig
D.    arp

Answer: C
Explanation:
The commanddigis a tool for querying DNS nameservers for information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. This tool can be used from any Linux (Unix) or Macintosh OS X operating system. The most typical use of dig is to simply query a single host.

QUESTION 3
Which of the following standards can operate at either 20MHz or 40MHz channel spacing?

A.    802.11a
B.    802.11b
C.    802.11g
D.    802.11n

Answer: D
Explanation:
The 2.4 GHz ISM band is fairly congested. With 802.11n, there is the option to double the bandwidth per channel to 40 MHz which results in slightly more than double the data rate. However, when in 2.4 GHz, enabling this option takes up to 82%[10] of the unlicensed band, which in many areas may prove to be infeasible.
The specification calls for requiring one primary 20 MHz channel as well as a secondary adjacent channel spaced ?0 MHz away. The primary channel is used for communications with clients incapable of 40 MHz mode. When in 40 MHz mode, the center frequency is actually the mean of the primary and secondary channels.

QUESTION 4
A client’s computer is unable to access any network resources. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine the IP address of the client’s machine?

A.    ipconfig
B.    nslookup
C.    dig
D.    tracert

Answer: A
Explanation:
ipconfigis a commmand line utility available on all versions of Microsoft Windows starting with Windows NT. ipconfig is designed to be run from the Windows command prompt. This utility allows you to get the IP address information of a Windows computer. It also allows some control over active TCP/IP connections. ipconfig is an alternative to the older ‘winipcfg’ utility.

QUESTION 5
A user’s computer is unable to access the Internet. Which of the following utilities can a technician use to determine if DNS is working?

A.    nbstat
B.    arp
C.    nslookup
D.    ipconfig

Answer: C
Explanation:
nslookupis a network utility program used to obtain information about Internet servers. As its name suggests, the utility finds name server information for domains by querying DNS.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following can MOST likely cause intermittent connection problems with a CAT5 network cable?

A.    Cable has been looped too many times.
B.    Cable has a twist tie attached too close to the connector.
C.    Cable is too warm.
D.    Cable is run too close to a fluorescent light.

Answer: D
Explanation: Cat 5is a twisted pair cablefor carrying signals. This type of cable is used in structured cabling for computer networks such as Ethernet. The cable standard provides performance of up to 100 MHz and is suitable for 10BASE-T, 100BASE-TX (Fast Ethernet), and 1000BASE-T (Gigabit Ethernet).

QUESTION 7
Given a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, how many usable IP addresses would be in that subnet?

A.    250
B.    254
C.    255
D.    256

Answer: B
Explanation:
TheSubnet Maskhowever, determines the “class” of a Network. 255.255.255.0 is a “Class C” network.A class c network can host up to 254 pc’s

QUESTION 8
On which of the following OSI model layers would a MAC address be used?

A.    Network
B.    Data Link
C.    Transport
D.    Physical

Answer: B
Explanation:
The ITU-TG.hnstandard, which provides high-speed local area networking over existing wires (power lines, phone lines and coaxial cables), includes a complete data link layer which provides both error correction and flow control by means of aselective repeatSliding Window Protocol.

QUESTION 9
Joe, a network technician, is troubleshooting in a wiring closet in 2011. The cabling to all the equipment does not match the documentation from 2007. Which of the following configuration management methods has been overlooked?

A.    Change management
B.    System logs
C.    Asset management
D.    Baselining

Answer: A
Explanation:
Change management is the request for to change any configuration which is documented.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following TCP/IP model layers does the OSI model Presentation layer map to?

A.    Transport
B.    Internet
C.    Application
D.    Network Interface

Answer: C
Explanation:
TheApplication layerprovides applications the ability to access the services of the other layers and defines the protocols that applications use to exchange data. There are many Application layer protocols and new protocols are always being developed.

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QUESTION 1
Click the Exhibit button. The maximum RAID group size of the RAID-DP aggr1 shown in the exhibit is 18.
You expand the aggregate by 20 disks.

11

How many of the new disks are used for data?

A.    20
B.    16
C.    14
D.    18

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which command prompt is displayed when a cluster named cl1 is in Advanced privilege mode?

A.    cl1::>
B.    cl1::*>
C.    cl1-01>
D.    SP cl1-01>

Answer: B
Explanation:
The following example sets the privilege level to advanced and then to admin:

vs1::> set -privilege advanced
Warning: These advanced commands are potentially dangerous; use them only when directed to do so by technical support.
Do you wish to continue? (y or n): y
vs1::*> set -privilege admin

https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196807/html/GUID-FBB48AE8-C74D-4472-A5CD-799D46ED2E85.html

QUESTION 3
You want to permanently reassign ownership of an aggregate to a node’s partner.
What should you do to accomplish this task?

A.    Reassign ownership of each disk in the aggregate to the partner node.
B.    Execute the storage aggregate relocation start command.
C.    Execute the storage failover command.
D.    Move all volumes on the aggregate to an aggregate that is owned by the partner.

Answer: B
Explanation:
To start the aggregate relocation process us the command: storage aggregate relocation start
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196905/html/GUID-AE98144E-002D-405D-88C5-198DC4B05F55.html

QUESTION 4
You want to use UTA2 ports for native FC LUN access.
How do you accomplish this task?

A.    Configure the UTA2 ports as target ports with 16 Gb SFP+ transceivers.
B.    Configure the UTA2 ports as target ports with 10 Gb SFP+ transceivers
C.    Configure the UTA2 ports as initiator ports with 10 Gb SFP+ transceivers
D.    Configure the UTA2 ports as initiator ports with 16 Gb SFP+ transceivers

Answer: D
Explanation:
Native Fibre Channel drives attach directly to the Fibre Channel SAN, eliminating the need for a router.
NetApp uses the marketing term “UTA2” to refer to a new generation of network adapters that can be configured as either 10-Gb Ethernet and FCoE ports or as 16-Gb FC initiator or target ports.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1636035/html/GUID-EC0DDAEE-1178-48EF-B90D-0A7DF498F71B.html

QUESTION 5
Click the Exhibit button. After logging into an SVM using the vsadmin user account, you are able to see existing volumes, but are unable to create new volumes.

51

Referring to the configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the problem?

A.    The vsadmin user is not assigned the correct application access.
B.    No aggregates have been assigned to the SVM.
C.    Aggregate SAS_01 is out of space.
D.    The vsadmin role does not have the create volumes privilege.

Answer: D

QUESTION 6
The NVM Express (NVMe) flash capacity is upgradeable in which two systems? (Choose two.)

A.    FAS9000
B.    FAS8200
C.    FAS2650
D.    AFF A700

Answer: AB
Explanation:
The latest generation of FAS2600, FAS8200 and FAS9000 families now support internal NVMe drives for FlashCache functionality to address this use case.
https://www.theregister.co.uk/2017/01/31/netapp_and_nvme_drives_and_fabric_access/

QUESTION 7
What is an array LUN?

A.    a LUN provisioned in ONTAP that is mounted by a connected host
B.    a LUN provisioned on third-party storage that ONTAP will use as a pass through LUN
C.    a LUN that is used only as a part of a volume group
D.    a LUN provisioned on third-party storage that ONTAP will use in a RAID group

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Data ONTAP software-based scheme provides ownership control only for storage systems running Data ONTAP; it does not prevent a different type of host from overwriting data in an array LUN owned by a system running Data ONTAP. Therefore, if multiple hosts are accessing array LUNs through the same storage array port, be sure to use LUN security on your storage array to prevent the systems from overwriting each other’s array LUNs.
https://library.netapp.com/ecmdocs/ECMP1196986/html/GUID-D5079042-EA9A-4052-9B00-670B3728FFAA.html

QUESTION 8
Which two features are supported by SnapLock Enterprise but not by SnapLock Compliance? (Choose two.)

A.    FlexArray
B.    privileged delete
C.    NetApp Volume Encryption (NVE)
D.    SnapMirror

Answer: BD

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QUESTION 1
Which two statements are true about IPsec VPNs and SSL VPNs? (Choose two.)

A.    SSL VPN creates a HTTPS connection. IPsec does not.
B.    Both SSL VPNs and IPsec VPNs are standard protocols.
C.    Either a SSL VPN or an IPsec VPN can be established between two FortiGate devices.
D.    Either a SSL VPN or an IPsec VPN can be established between an end-user workstation and a FortiGate device.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Alert emails enable the FortiGate unit to send email notifications to an email address upon detection of a pre-defined event type.
Which of the following are some of the available event types in Web Config? (Select all that apply.)

A.    Intrusion detected.
B.    Successful firewall authentication.
C.    Oversized file detected.
D.    DHCP address assigned.
E.    FortiGuard Web Filtering rating error detected.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A user logs into a SSL VPN portal and activates the tunnel mode.
The administrator has enabled split tunneling. The exhibit shows the firewall policy configuration:

Which static route is automatically added to the client’s routing table when the tunnel mode is activated?

A.    A route to a destination subnet matching the Internal_Servers address object.
B.    A route to the destination subnet configured in the tunnel mode widget.
C.    A default route.
D.    A route to the destination subnet configured in the SSL VPN global settings.

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Regarding tunnel-mode SSL VPN, which three statements are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Split tunneling is supported.
B.    It requires the installation of a VPN client.
C.    It requires the use of an Internet browser.
D.    It does not support traffic from third-party network applications.
E.    An SSL VPN IP address is dynamically assigned to the client by the FortiGate unit.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 5
DLP archiving gives the ability to store session transaction data on a FortiAnalyzer unit for which of the following types of network traffic? (Select all that apply.)

A.    SNMP
B.    IPSec
C.    SMTP
D.    POP3
E.    HTTP

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6
Which statements regarding banned words are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    Content is automatically blocked if a single instance of a banned word appears.
B.    The FortiGate updates banned words on a periodic basis.
C.    The FortiGate can scan web pages and email messages for instances of banned words.
D.    Banned words can be expressed as simple text, wildcards and regular expressions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Examine the following FortiGate web proxy configuration; then answer the question below:

config web-proxy explicit
set pac-file-server-status enable
set pac-file-server-port 8080
set pac-file-name wpad.dat
end

Assuming that the FortiGate proxy IP address is 10.10.1.1, which URL must an Internet browser use to download the PAC file?

A.    https://10.10.1.1:8080
B.    https://10.10.1.1:8080/wpad.dat
C.    http://10.10.1.1:8080/
D.    http://10.10.1.1:8080/wpad.dat

Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which statements are true regarding the use of a PAC file to configure the web proxy settings in an Internet browser? (Choose two.)

A.    Only one proxy is supported.
B.    Can be manually imported to the browser.
C.    The browser can automatically download it from a web server.
D.    Can include a list of destination IP subnets where the browser can connect directly to without using a proxy.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
Which two methods are supported by the web proxy auto-discovery protocol (WPAD) to automatically learn the URL where a PAC file is located? (Choose two.)

A.    DHCP
B.    BOOTP
C.    DNS
D.    IPv6 autoconfiguration

Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What is a valid reason for using session based authentication instead of IP based authentication in a FortiGate web proxy solution?

A.    Users are required to manually enter their credentials each time they connect to a different web site.
B.    Proxy users are authenticated via FSSO.
C.    There are multiple users sharing the same IP address.
D.    Proxy users are authenticated via RADIUS.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
A company.com wants to enable Application Override. Given the following screenshot:
Which two statements are true if Source and Destination traffic match the Application Override policy? (Choose two)

A.    Traffic that matches “rtp-base” will bypass the App-ID and Content-ID engines.
B.    Traffic will be forced to operate over UDP Port 16384.
C.    Traffic utilizing UDP Port 16384 will now be identified as “rtp-base”.
D.    Traffic utilizing UDP Port 16384 will bypass the App-ID and Content-ID engines.

Answer: CD
Explanation:
An application override policy is changes how the Palo Alto Networks firewall classifies network traffic into applications. An application override with a custom application prevents the session from being processed by the App-ID engine, which is a Layer-7 inspection.
https://live.paloaltonetworks.com/t5/Configuration-Articles/How-to-Create-an-Application-Override-Policy/ta-p/60044

QUESTION 2
Which three fields can be included in a pcap filter? (Choose three)

A.    Egress interface
B.    Source IP
C.    Rule number
D.    Destination IP
E.    Ingress interface

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 3
What are three possible verdicts that WildFire can provide for an analyzed sample? (Choose three)

A.    Clean
B.    Bengin
C.    Adware
D.    Suspicious
E.    Grayware
F.    Malware

Answer: BEF
Explanation:
The WildFire verdicts are: Benign, Grayware, Malware.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan-os/pan-os/monitoring/log-severity-levels-and-wildfire-verdicts

QUESTION 4
A logging infrastructure may need to handle more than 10,000 logs per second.
Which two options support a dedicated log collector function? (Choose two)

A.    Panorama virtual appliance on ESX(i) only
B.    M-500
C.    M-100 with Panorama installed
D.    M-100

Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
What are three valid method of user mapping? (Choose three)

A.    Syslog
B.    XML API
C.    802.1X
D.    WildFire
E.    Server Monitoring

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 6
A host attached to ethernet1/3 cannot access the internet. The default gateway is attached to ethernet1/4. After troubleshooting. It is determined that traffic cannot pass from the ethernet1/3 to ethernet1/4. What can be the cause of the problem?

A.    DHCP has been set to Auto.
B.    Interface ethernet1/3 is in Layer 2 mode and interface ethernet1/4 is in Layer 3 mode.
C.    Interface ethernet1/3 and ethernet1/4 are in Virtual Wire Mode.
D.    DNS has not been properly configured on the firewall

Answer: B
Explanation:
In a Layer 2 deployment, the firewall provides switching between two or more interfaces. Each group of interfaces must be assigned to a VLAN object in order for the firewall to switch between them.
In a Layer 3 deployment, the firewall routes traffic between ports. An IP address must be assigned to each interface and a virtual router must be defined to route the traffic. Choose this option when routing is required.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan-os/pan-os/getting-started/basic-interface-deployments

QUESTION 7
The IT department has received complaints abou VoIP call jitter when the sales staff is making or receiving calls. QoS is enabled on all firewall interfaces, but there is no QoS policy written in the rulebase. The IT manager wants to find out what traffic is causing the jitter in real time when a user reports the jitter.
Which feature can be used to identify, in real time, the applications taking up the most bandwidth?

A.    QoS Statistics
B.    Applications Report
C.    Application Command Center (ACC)
D.    QoS Log

Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network security engineer is asked to provide a report on bandwidth usage. Which tab in the ACC provides the information needed to create the report?

A.    Blocked Activity
B.    Bandwidth Activity
C.    Threat Activity
D.    Network Activity

Answer: D
Explanation:
The Network Activity tab of the Application Command Center (ACC) displays an overview of traffic and user activity on your network including:
Top applications in use
Top users who generate traffic (with a drill down into the bytes, content, threats or URLs accessed by the user)
Most used security rules against which traffic matches occur
In addition, you can also view network activity by source or destination zone, region, or IP address, ingress or egress interfaces, and GlobalProtect host information such as the operating systems of the devices most commonly used on the network.
https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/documentation/70/pan-os/pan-os/monitoring/acc-tabs.html

QUESTION 9
Which three options does the WF-500 appliance support for local analysis? (Choose three)

A.    E-mail links
B.    APK files
C.    jar files
D.    PNG files
E.    Portable Executable (PE) files

Answer: ACE

QUESTION 10
Company.com has an in-house application that the Palo Alto Networks device doesn’t identify correctly. A Threat Management Team member has mentioned that this in-house application is very sensitive and all traffic being identified needs to be inspected by the Content-ID engine.
Which method should company.com use to immediately address this traffic on a Palo Alto Networks device?

A.    Create a custom Application without signatures, then create an Application Override policy that includes the source, Destination, Destination Port/Protocol and Custom Application of the traffic.
B.    Wait until an official Application signature is provided from Palo Alto Networks.
C.    Modify the session timer settings on the closest referanced application to meet the needs of the in-house application
D.    Create a Custom Application with signatures matching unique identifiers of the in-house application traffic

Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
The project manager was asked to provide recommendations for the removal of a vendor.
A meeting was scheduled with the key stakeholders and the project sponsor to highlight the reasons for this recommendation.
Which of the following should the project manager bring to the meeting to support this recommendation? (Choose two.)

A.    The issue log to show why the vendor should be replaced
B.    The team action items to show why the vendor should be replaced
C.    The scope statement to show why the vendor should be replaced
D.    A procurement plan to show why the vendor should be replaced
E.    A change management plan to have the vendor replaced

Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
A company has updated the method it uses to initiate projects.
The company requires RFPs from three vendors, and low high bids must be rejected to determine the selected vendor.
Which of the following terms describes this requirement?

A.    Outsourcing
B.    Business acquisition
C.    Business process change
D.    Internal reorganization

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The project manager has noticed a vendor is not performing in accordance with the SLA.
Which of the following items should the project manager use to highlight the vendor’s areas of poor performance?

A.    Balanced score card
B.    WBS
C.    Post-project evaluation
D.    PERT

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Team members have reported that meetings are poorly attended and unproductive.
Which of the following steps can the project manager take to make the meetings more productive?

A.    Discontinue the meetings with the poorest attendance.
B.    Decrease the length of the meetings
C.    Distribute an agenda before each meeting
D.    Document team member attendance and report it to management.

Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following documents should be used to provide high-level reporting to key stakeholders?

A.    Dashboard
B.    Communication plan
C.    Statement of work
D.    Project charter

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
During the initiation phase, a project manager has asked for a document containing the high-level objectives and goals for a project.
Which of the following documents would contain these items?

A.    Business case
B.    Requirements document
C.    Project timeline
D.    Task plan

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A program manager informs a project manager that a new, high-priority project has been approved and will need the current project’s resources before the scheduled project close-date.
The project team meets and determines that the project should be fast-tracked.
Which of the following documents should the project team reference to fast-track the project? (Choose two.).

A.    Scope management plan
B.    Configuration management plan
C.    Network diagram
D.    Project schedule
E.    Project plan

Answer: CD

QUESTION 8
During the execution phase, the project manager discovered that the testing phase is dependent on completion of the vendor’s tasks The project team has just informed the project manager their activities are almost complete, and they would like permission to begin testing.
The vendor is not scheduled to deliver the products for two months.
Which of the following should have occurred to prevent this issue?

A.    During the planning phase, the project manager should have recognized the relationship between the vendor’s and project team’s tasks and adjusted the schedule for the project team to begin activities two months later.
B.    The project manager should have crashed the schedule for the vendor to keep it at the same work pace as the rest of the project team.
C.    During the project team’s regular status meeting with the vendor, the project team should have informed the vendor that the team was ahead of schedule and to speed up their work.
D.    During the project team’s regular status meeting with the vendor, the vendor should have informed the project team that it required another two months, and to slow down.

Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A project team is composed of numerous team members who are located throughout a country.
All personnel have identified core business hours.
A team engineer based in a machine shop has a question during business hours for the project manager, who is located at a different facility.
Which of the following is the MOST expedient communication method, assuming the question can be resolved quickly?

A.    Email
B.    Social media
C.    Text messaging
D.    Face-to-face

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Due to a new government regulation, a project change is required.
The project manager evaluates the change and realizes a legal department will need to approve the change as well. The project manager should:

A.    follow the change process flow and notify the legal department after the change is implemented.
B.    extend a formal invitation to the legal department representative to join the CCB
C.    hold a separate meeting with the legal department representative and ask for approval
D.    notify the legal department representative in the event of an upcoming audit

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You work for a software development company that has followed the waterfall development model for more than 20 years. Lately, a number of customers have complained that your company is taking too long to complete its projects. You attended a class on agile development methods and believe that if the company used the agile approach, it could provide products to clients in a shorter time period. However, it would be a major culture change to switch from the waterfall methodology to the agile approach and to train staff members in this new approach. You mentioned this idea to the director of the PMO, and although she liked the idea, she would need approval from the company’s portfolio review board to move forward with it. She suggested that you document this idea in a______________.

A.    Business need
B.    Product scope description
C.    Project charter
D.    Business case

Answer: D
Explanation:
The business case is used to provide the necessary information to determine whether or not a project is worth its investment. It is used to justify the project and typically contains a cost-benefit analysis and a business need.

QUESTION 2
You are managing a large project with 20 key internal stakeholders, eight contractors, and six team leaders. You must devote attention to effective integrated change control. This means you are concerned primarily with______________.

A.    Reviewing, approving, and controlling changes
B.    Maintaining baseline integrity, integrating product and project scope, and coordinating change across knowledge areas
C.    Integrating deliverables from different functional specialties on the project
D.    Establishing a change control board that oversees the overall project changes

Answer: A
Explanation:
Performing integrated change control consists of coordinating and managing changes across the project. Activities that occur within the context of perform integrated change control include:
validate scope, control scope, control schedule, control costs, perform quality assurance, control
quality, manage the project team, control communications, control risks, conduct procurements, control procurements, manage stakeholder engagement, and control stakeholder engagement.

QUESTION 3
You plan to hold a series of meeting as you execute the project plan. While different attendees will attend each meeting, a best practice to follow is to:

A.    Group stakeholders into categories to determine which ones should attend each meeting
B.    Not mix the types of meetings on your project
C.    Be sensitive to the fact that stakeholders often have very different objectives and invite them to determine the meeting’s agenda
D.    Recognize that roles and responsibilities may overlap so focus on holding meetings primarily for decision making

Answer: B
Explanation:
Meetings are a tool and technique used in direct and manage project work. Meetings tend to be one of three types: information exchange; brainstorming, option evaluation, or design; or decision making. A best practice is to not combine the types of meetings and prepare for them with a well- defined agenda, purpose, objective, and time frame. They should be documented using minutes and action items.

QUESTION 4
You are the project manager in charge of developing a new shipping container for Globus Ocean Transport, which needs to withstand winds of 90 knots and swells of 30 meters. In determining the dimension of the container and the materials to be used in its fabrication, you convene a group of knowledgeable professionals to gather initial requirements, which will be included in the______________.

A.    Project charter
B.    Bill of materials
C.    WBS
D.    Project Statement of Work

Answer: A
Explanation:
The project charter documents the business needs, assumptions, constraints, understanding of the customer needs and high-level requirements and what the new product, service, or result is to satisfy. It is the document used to formally authorize the project.

QUESTION 5
You have assembled a core team to develop the project management plan for the next generation of fatigue fighting drugs. The science is complex, and the extended team of researchers, clinicians, and patients for trials exceeds 500 people. The content of your project management plan will be directed primarily by two factors. They are______________.

A.    Project complexity and the capability of resources
B.    Number of resources and project schedule
C.    Team member experience and budget
D.    Application area and complexity

Answer: D
Explanation:
The content of the project management plan is primarily influenced by the application area [in this case drug development] and complexity of the project. The size of the plan is typically commensurate with the size and complexity of the project.

QUESTION 6
When you established the change control board for your avionics project, you established specific procedures to govern its operation. The procedures require all approved changes to baselines to be reflected in the______________.

A.    Performance measurement baseline
B.    Change management plan
C.    Quality assurance plan
D.    Project management plan

Answer: D
Explanation:
The project management plan must be updated changes to subsidiary plans and baselines subject to formal change control processes. Those changes must be communicated to appropriate stakeholders in a timely manner.

QUESTION 7
You are beginning a new project staffed with a virtual team located across five countries. To help avoid conflict in work priorities among your team members and their functional managers, you ask the project sponsor to prepare a______________.

A.    Memo to team members informing them that they work for you now
B.    Project charter
C.    Memo to the functional managers informing them that you have authority to direct their employees
D.    Human resource management plan

Answer: B
Explanation:
Although the project charter cannot stop conflicts from arising, it can provide a framework to help resolve them, because it describes the project manager’s authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.

QUESTION 8
The purpose of economic value added (EVA) is to______________.

A.    Determine the opportunity costs associated with the project
B.    Determine a non-time-dependent measure of profit or return
C.    Assess the net operating profit after taxes
D.    Evaluate the return on capital percent versus the cost of capital percent

Answer: D
Explanation:
Evaluate the return on capital percent versus the cost of capital percent EVA quantifies the value a company provides to its investors and seeks to determine if a company is creating or destroying value to its shareholders. It is calculated by subtracting the expected return, (represented by the capital charge), from the actual return that a company generates, (represented by net operating profit after taxes).

QUESTION 9
Facilitation techniques are used throughout project management. Your company is embarking on a project to completely eliminate defects in its products. You are the project manager for this project, and you are developing your project charter. To assist you, which of the following facilitation techniques did you use?

A.    Surveys
B.    Delphi approach
C.    Meeting management
D.    Focus groups

Answer: C
Explanation:
Meeting management is an example of a facilitation technique used in developing the project charter as meetings may be held with key stakeholders and subject matter experts. Other facilitation techniques used to guide preparation of the charter are brainstorming, problem solving, and conflict resolution.

QUESTION 10
The direct and manage project work process truly is important in project management. It affects many other key processes and uses inputs from others. Working with your team at its kickoff meeting, you explain the key benefit of this process is to______________.

A.    Implement approved changes
B.    Provide overall management of the project work
C.    Lead and perform activities in the project management plan
D.    Perform activities to accomplish project objectives

Answer: B
Explanation:
While all of the answers apply to the direct and manage project work process, the key benefit is that it involves providing overall management of the work of the project, encompassing the other answers listed.

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network?

A.    HIPS on each virtual machine
B.    NIPS on the network
C.    NIDS on the network
D.    HIDS on each virtual machine

Answer: A
Explanation:
Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following components of an all-in-one security appliance would MOST likely be configured in order to restrict access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites?

A.    Spam filter
B.    URL filter
C.    Content inspection
D.    Malware inspection

Answer: B
Explanation:
The question asks how to prevent access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites.
You access a website by browsing to a URL using a Web browser or peer-to-peer file sharing client software.
A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website.
Incorrect Answer:
A: A spam filter is used for email. All inbound (and sometimes outbound) email is passed through the spam filter to detect spam emails. The spam emails are then discarded or tagged as potential spam according to the spam filter configuration. Spam filters do not prevent users accessing peer- to-peer file sharing websites.
C: Content inspection is the process of inspecting the content of a web page as it is downloaded. The content can then be blocked if it doesn’t comply with the company’s web policy. Content- control software determines what content will be available or perhaps more often what content will be blocked. Content inspection does not prevent users accessing peer-to-peer file sharing websites (although it could block the content of the sites as it is downloaded).
D: Malware inspection is the process of scanning a computer system for malware. Malware inspection does not prevent users accessing peer-to-peer file sharing websites.

QUESTION 3
Pete, the system administrator, wants to restrict access to advertisements, games, and gambling web sites. Which of the following devices would BEST achieve this goal?

A.    Firewall
B.    Switch
C.    URL content filter
D.    Spam filter

Answer: C
Explanation:
URL filtering, also known as web filtering, is the act of blocking access to a site based on all or part of the URL used to request access. URL filtering can focus on all or part of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), specific path names, specific filenames, specific fi le extensions, or entire specific URLs. Many URL-filtering tools can obtain updated master URL block lists from vendors as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.

QUESTION 4
The administrator receives a call from an employee named Joe. Joe says the Internet is down and he is receiving a blank page when typing to connect to a popular sports website. The administrator asks Joe to try visiting a popular search engine site, which Joe reports as successful. Joe then says that he can get to the sports site on this phone. Which of the following might the administrator need to configure?

A.    The access rules on the IDS
B.    The pop up blocker in the employee’s browser
C.    The sensitivity level of the spam filter
D.    The default block page on the URL filter

Answer: D
Explanation:
A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL. There are a number of URL-filtering tools that can acquire updated master URL block lists from vendors, as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.

QUESTION 5
Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called:

A.    Firewalls
B.    Content filters
C.    Routers
D.    NIDS

Answer: B
Explanation:
A content filter is a is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.

QUESTION 6
Pete, an employee, attempts to visit a popular social networking site but is blocked. Instead, a page is displayed notifying him that this site cannot be visited. Which of the following is MOST likely blocking Pete’s access to this site?

A.    Internet content filter
B.    Firewall
C.    Proxy server
D.    Protocol analyzer

Answer: A
Explanation:
Web filtering software is designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, especially when utilised to restrict material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means.

QUESTION 7
A review of the company’s network traffic shows that most of the malware infections are caused by users visiting gambling and gaming websites. The security manager wants to implement a solution that will block these websites, scan all web traffic for signs of malware, and block the malware before it enters the company network. Which of the following is suited for this purpose?

A.    ACL
B.    IDS
C.    UTM
D.    Firewall

Answer: C
Explanation:
An all-in-one appliance, also known as Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Next Generation Firewall (NGFW), is one that provides a good foundation for security. A variety is available; those that you should be familiar with for the exam fall under the categories of providing URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection.
Malware inspection is the use of a malware scanner to detect unwanted software content in network traffic. If malware is detected, it can be blocked or logged and/or trigger an alert.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is BEST at blocking attacks and providing security at layer 7 of the OSI model?

A.    WAF
B.    NIDS
C.    Routers
D.    Switches

Answer: A
Explanation:
A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server plugin, or filter that applies a set of rules to an HTTP conversation. Generally, these rules cover common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection. By customizing the rules to your application, many attacks can be identified and blocked. The effort to perform this customization can be significant and needs to be maintained as the application is modified.
As the protocols used to access a web server (typically HTTP and HTTPS) run in layer 7 of the OSI model, then web application firewall (WAF) is the correct answer.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following should the security administrator implement to limit web traffic based on country of origin? (Select THREE).

A.    Spam filter
B.    Load balancer
C.    Antivirus
D.    Proxies
E.    Firewall
F.    NIDS
G.    URL filtering

Answer: DEG
Explanation:
A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers.
Firewalls manage traffic using a rule or a set of rules. A URL is a reference to a resource that specifies the location of the resource. A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL.

QUESTION 10
A security engineer is reviewing log data and sees the output below:

POST: /payload.php HTTP/1.1
HOST: localhost
Accept: */*
Referrer: http://localhost/
*******
HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden
Connection: close
Log: Access denied with 403.
Pattern matches form bypass

Which of the following technologies was MOST likely being used to generate this log?

A.    Host-based Intrusion Detection System
B.    Web application firewall
C.    Network-based Intrusion Detection System
D.    Stateful Inspection Firewall
E.    URL Content Filter

Answer: B
Explanation:
A web application firewall is a device, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and all visitors. It’s intended to be an application- specific firewall to prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and other web application attacks.

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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop Question
A security administrator is given the security and availability profiles for servers that are being deployed.

1) Match each RAID type with the correct configuration and MINIMUM number of drives.
2) Review the server profiles and match them with the appropriate RAID type based on integrity, availability, I/O, storage requirements. Instructions:

– All drive definitions can be dragged as many times as necessary
– Not all placeholders may be filled in the RAID configuration boxes
– If parity is required, please select the appropriate number of parity checkboxes
– Server profiles may be dragged only once

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

Answer:

Explanation:
RAID-0 is known as striping. It is not a fault tolerant solution but does improve disk performance for read/write operations. Striping requires a minimum of two disks and does not use parity. RAID-0 can be used where performance is required over fault tolerance, such as a media streaming server.
RAID-1 is known as mirroring because the same data is written to two disks so that the two disks have identical data. This is a fault tolerant solution that halves the storage space. A minimum of two disks are used in mirroring and does not use parity. RAID-1 can be used where fault tolerance is required over performance, such as on an authentication server. RAID-5 is a fault tolerant solution that uses parity and striping. A minimum of three disks are required for RAID-5 with one disk’s worth of space being used for parity information. However, the parity information is distributed across all the disks. RAID-5 can recover from a sing disk failure.
RAID-6 is a fault tolerant solution that uses dual parity and striping. A minimum of four disks are required for RAID-6. Dual parity allows RAID-6 to recover from the simultaneous failure of up to two disks. Critical data should be stored on a RAID-6 system.
http://www.adaptec.com/en-us/solutions/raid_levels.html

QUESTION 22
Refer to the following code:

Which of the following vulnerabilities would occur if this is executed?

A.    Page exception
B.    Pointer dereference
C.    NullPointerException
D.    Missing null check

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
A database backup schedule consists of weekly full backups performed on Saturday at 12:00 A.m. and daily differential backups also performed at 12:00 A.m. If the database is restored on Tuesday afternoon, which of the following is the number of individual backups that would need to be applied to complete the database recovery?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    3
D.    4

Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which of the following technologies employ the use of SAML? (Select TWO).

A.    Single sign-on
B.    Federation
C.    LDAP
D.    Secure token
E.    RADIUS

Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
An organization is using a tool to perform a source code review. Which of the following describes the case in which the tool incorrectly identifies the vulnerability?

A.    False negative
B.    True negative
C.    False positive
D.    True positive

Answer: C

QUESTION 26
In a corporation where compute utilization spikes several times a year, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has requested a cost-effective architecture to handle the variable capacity demand. Which of the following characteristics BEST describes what the CIO has requested?

A.    Elasticity
B.    Scalability
C.    High availability
D.    Redundancy

Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A Security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address. The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?

A.    tracert
B.    netstat
C.    Ping
D.    nslookup

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity?

A.    Sustainability
B.    Homogeneity
C.    Resiliency
D.    Configurability

Answer: C

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QUESTION 31
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to temporarily stop connections to all machines belonging to the Finance Applications Delivery Group.

Which step should the administrator take to ensure that NO new connections are possible to this Delivery Group while performing maintenance?

A.    Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerAccessPolicyRule.
B.    Shut down all affected machines within the XenServer console.
C.    Select the Delivery Group and use the ‘Turn On Maintenance Mode’ option.
D.    Enable Maintenance Mode on a XenServer that hosts ‘Financial Applications’.

Answer: C

QUESTION 32
Scenario: Users report slow application launch times after a master image update. These users have critical deadlines and need access to their machines as soon as possible.

How should a Citrix Administrator resolve the slow application launch times?

A.    Revert to the previous image.
B.    Reset user profiles using Citrix Director.
C.    Restart the impacted Desktop OS machines.
D.    Migrate the Desktop OS machines to a different host.

Answer: A

QUESTION 33
Scenario: A user receives the following error when attempting to log in to a Desktop OS machine:

The desktop “Finance1” is temporarily unavailable due to planned maintenance.

A Citrix Administrator verified that the Finance1 Delivery Group is NOT in maintenance mode, and no other users report virtual machine issues from the same Delivery Group.

How could the administrator resolve this issue?

A.    Restart the Desktop OS machine.
B.    Turn off the maintenance mode on the specific Desktop OS machine.
C.    Turn off maintenance mode on the XenServer hosting the user’s Desktop OS machine.
D.    Shutdown the user’s Desktop OS machine and provision a new Desktop OS machine for the specific user.

Answer: B

QUESTION 34
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to reduce power consumption during off-peak hours.
With the current configuration, the Desktop OS machines will remain powered-on when users disconnect at the end of the workday.

How could the administrator reduce power consumption during off-peak hours?

A.    Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerDesktopGroup.
B.    Set the Reboot Schedule policy from within Citrix Studio.
C.    Create a shutdown scheduled task on the Desktop OS machines.
D.    Configure Power Management settings in an Active Directory Group Policy.

Answer: A

QUESTION 35
Scenario: Employees in an organization work two separate shifts and use pooled-random Desktop OS machines. When employees working at night end their shift, they disconnect from their Desktop OS machines. When employees working the day shift log on, their Desktop OS machines are NOT available.

What could a Citrix Administrator do to resolve this issue?

A.    Configure the ‘Reboot Schedule’ in Citrix policies.
B.    Set ‘When Disconnected’ to Suspend during peak hours.
C.    Set ‘When Disconnected’ to Shutdown during peak hours.
D.    Adjust Power Management settings in the Active Directory Group Policy.

Answer: C

QUESTION 36
After installing Firefox and Adobe Reader on the master target device and updating the vDisk, users report the new applications are NOT visible.

What should a Citrix Administrator do to resolve this issue?

A.    Set the vDisk mode to ‘Production.’
B.    Merge existing vDisks with the base version.
C.    Revert the vDisk target to the previous version.
D.    Select ‘Update Machines’ on the Machine Catalog.

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator manages a XenDesktop environment where Provisioning Services is used to create and deploy Server and Desktop OS machines. The administrator needs to update the vDisk assigned to Desktop OS machines with a new version of an application.

What must the administrator do to initiate the update?

A.    Merge the vDisk versions in the Provisioning Services Console.
B.    Create a new vDisk version in the Provisioning Services Console.
C.    Select ‘Update Machines’ on the Machine Catalog in Citrix Studio.
D.    Select the Device Collection and restart the target device in the Provisioning Services Console.

Answer: B

QUESTION 38
A Citrix Administrator could export Configuration Logging data from Citrix Studio in __________ and __________ file formats? (Choose the two correct options to complete this sentence.)

A.    .XLS
B.    .XML
C.    .PDF
D.    .CSV
E.    .HTML

Answer: DE

QUESTION 39
A Citrix Administrator returns from vacation to find that during peak logon times, users are experiencing extremely slow login times, with the typical login taking over 120 seconds.

How should the administrator generate the information needed to determine the changes that have led to this issue?

A.    Launch the Create Custom Report wizard from Citrix Studio.
B.    Run a custom report for the Delivery Group from Citrix Studio.
C.    Go to the C:\XDLogs and print the log file on the Delivery Controller.
D.    Create a custom view and print the results from the Delivery Controller.

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is informed of latency at a branch office. Users report they are experiencing slow mouse and keyboard responses, as well as slow screen refreshes, while working within their Desktop OS machines. Users at the branch office access their Desktop OS machines through the NetScaler Gateway.

Which tool could the administrator use to monitor the user experience at the remote office?

A.    Citrix Scout
B.    Citrix Studio
C.    Citrix Director
D.    Citrix Command Center

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator entered the command-line interface commands below to prevent IP address 10.10.10.100 from accessing the NetScaler on port 80.

add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -TTL 600
add simpleacl rule2 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -destPort 80
add ns acl rule1 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -priority 10
add ns acl rule2 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -priority 100
apply ns acls

Which Access Control List (ACL) will the NetScaler use to deny the IP address?

A.    add ns acl rule1 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -priority 10
B.    add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -TTL 600
C.    add simpleacl rule2 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -destPort 80
D.    add ns acl rule2 DENY -srclP 10.10.10.100 -priority 100

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A Citrix Administrator needs to create a customized blacklist of IP addresses to supplement the Webroot reputation check, and in order to have stricter access through NetScaler. How can the administrator create this blacklist?

A.    Create several extended Access Control List policies
B.    Create a data set tor IPv4 address matching.
C.    C. Enable MAC-based Forwarding
D.    Create several simple Access Control List policies.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A NetScaler has two interlaces as 1/1 and 1/2 with MAC-based Forwarding enabled below are the specifications

– Interlace 1/1 and IP 192 168 10.10 is bound to VLAN 10
– On Interlace 1/2 VLAN 20 and VLAN 30 are tagged
– VLAN 20 is bound to IP 192.168 20 10 and VLAN 30 is bound to 192.168.30 10

The NetScaler receives a packet tor VIP 192 168.30.30 on interface 1/1. Which interlace of NetScaler will send a reply back in this environment?

A.    Interface 1/1
B.    NetScaler will drop the packet received on interface 1/1
C.    Interface 1/2
D.    NetScaler will reply on interfaces 1/1 and 1/2

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A Citrix administrator configured a new NetScater Unified Gateway. The administrator would like to see what Endpoint Analysis and Single Sign-on failures have occurred since implementing the new Gateway.

Which tool can the administrator use to see this data?

A.    NetScater Dashboard
B.    MAS Gateway Insight
C.    aaad.debug
D.    MAS Security Insight

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which two options should a Citrix Administrator consider when adding a secondary device in a high availability (HA) pair? (Choose two.)

A.    The Independent Network Configuration (INC) mode should be enabled.
B.    Both the devices should have different SNIP addresses.
C.    The nsroot password should be same on both nodes.
D.    HA Monitoring should be disabled on all the unused interfaces.
E.    Configure the HA status of the Primary Node as STAYPRIMARY.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator suspects an attack on a load-balancing virtual server. The administrator needs to restrict access to the load-balancing virtual server (192.168.100.25) for 10 minutes.

Which Access Control List (ACL) will help to accomplish this requirement?

A.    add ns acl rule1 DENY -destIP 192.168.100.25 -TTL 600000
B.    add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srcIP 192.168.100.25 -TTL 600
C.    add ns acI rule1 DENY -destIP 192.168.100.25 -TTL 600
D.    add simpleacl rule1 DENY -srcIP 192.168.100.25 -TTL 600000

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has a NetScaler SDX appliance with several instances configured. The administrator needs one instance with two interfaces connected to forward packets that are NOT destined for its MAC address. Hence, the administrator has enabled Layer 2 mode. After enabling Layer 2 mode, the administrator found the interface status going up and down.

What can the administrator perform to resolve this issue?

A.    Disable Layer 2 mode on a NetScaler instance.
B.    Enable MAC-based Forwarding mode.
C.    Enable tagging on all interfaces.
D.    Enable Layer 3 mode along with Layer 2 mode.

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two features can a Citrix Administrator use to allow secure external access to a sensitive company web server that is load-balanced by the NetScaler? (Choose two.)

A.    ICA proxy
B.    Integrated caching
C.    Application Firewall
D.    AppFlow
E.    AAA

Answer: AE

QUESTION 9
Which two components need to be configured for SmartAccess? (Choose two.)

A.    Configuration logging
B.    XenDesktop policies
C.    XML Trust
D.    StoreFront server groups

Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A user is attempting to access a web server, which is load-balanced by the NetScaler using HTTPS. The user received the following message:

SSL/TLS error: You have not chosen to trust “Certificate Authority” the issuer of the server’s security certificate.

What can a Citrix Administrator do to prevent users from viewing this message?

A.    Ensure that the intermediate Certificate is linked to the Server Certificate.
B.    Ensure that the user has the Server Certificate installed.
C.    Ensure that the intermediate Certificate is linked to the Root Certificate.
D.    Ensure that the user has the Certificate’s Public key.

Answer: C

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QUESTION 21
Which vDisk change will always require the use of reverse imaging?

A.    Installing a new service pack on a Windows-based vDisk.
B.    Upgrading the Provisioning services target device software installed on the vDisk.
C.    Updating the NIC drivers on the vDisk.
D.    Making permanent registry changes to the vDisk.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://ctxpro.com/removing-system-reserved-partition/

QUESTION 22
What is the default auto-launch behavior for published applications and desktops within a XenApp and XenDesktop environment?

A.    If a single application is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
B.    No published applications or desktops launch automatically.
C.    If a single desktop is published to the user, it will launch automatically.
D.    All published applications launch automatically.
E.    All published desktops launch automatically.

Answer: C
Explanation:
http://www.carlstalhood.com/storefront-3-5-tweaks/

QUESTION 23
In which scenario should a Citrix Engineer use the Streamed VM Setup wizard instead of the XenDesktop Setup wizard?

A.    When using the client-side write cache
B.    When automatically adding virtual machines to a machine catalog
C.    When integrating XenApp 6.5
D.    When using the BDM Disk Partition boot method

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
A Citrix Engineer needs to implement Workspace Environment Management (WEM) in an existing XenDesktop environment.
Which three software requirements should the engineer consider before implementing WEM? (Choose three.)

A.    A minimum of .NET framework 4.0 for the Agent Host and Administration Console
B.    The Windows Server 2008 R2 or later requirement for the Administrative Console
C.    A minimum of Citrix License Server version 11.14
D.    WEM implementation with any version of XenApp or XenDesktop
E.    The Microsoft Sync Framework 2.1 requirement on all components

Answer: ACD
Explanation:
https://docs.citrix.com/content/dam/docs/en-us/workspace-environment-management/current-release/downloads/citrix-workspace-environment-management-4-3.pdf (page 6)

QUESTION 25
When creating layers, an image template can be used to _________. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A.    Built an Application or platform Layer
B.    Create an image of an App Layer for elastic distribution
C.    Create an OS Layer version
D.    Publish Layered Images

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.jgspiers.com/create-update-os-layer-unidesk-4/#Create-Image-Template

QUESTION 26
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer recently implemented Workspace Environment Management (WEM) in an existing XenDesktop infrastructure to include deployment of Agent Host on several Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines. After beginning to configure various global settings for users, the engineer realized that all Agent Hosts should NOT share all the same settings, since each set of users requires different settings and policies for their sessions.
Which option should the engineer configure to provide different settings and policies for user sessions?

A.    Use the existing single WEM Site to configure all required global settings and then configure each Agent Host to manage the different settings required for each user session.
B.    Use the existing single WEM Site to configure all required global settings and allow the Site to manage the different settings required for each user session.
C.    Create additional WEM Sites, then configure each Agent Host to manage the different settings required for each user session.
D.    Create additional WEM Sites, set the required settings and policy configurations for each Site, then point each Agent Host to one of the Sites containing it needs to apply to user sessions.

Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer installed and configured two Provisioning Services servers to guarantee high availability. One of the Provisioning Services servers experienced failure and now the write
cache is no longer available for the target devices.
Which write cache location is currently being used in this environment?

A.    On a fileshare connected to both Provisioning Services servers
B.    On the local disk of both provisioning Services servers
C.    On a persistent disk attached to the virtual desktop
D.    In the RAM of the virtual desktop

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://www.carlstalhood.com/category/provisioning-services/#verifywritecache

QUESTION 28
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer is designing a Provisioning Services environment based on the following environmental factors:

– A large number of target devices are spread over multiple subnets.
– The subnets include non-Provisioning Services machines that rely on booting over the network
– A security mandate prohibits the use of TFTP.
– The XenDesktop Setup Wizard is used to create the target devices.

Which Provisioning Services boot method is appropriate for the target devices?

A.    BDM Disk Partition
B.    BIOS Embedded
C.    DHCP Options
D.    BDM ISO

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The StoreFront subscription store is located on ______. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)

A.    A SQL Express database designed through the StoreFront web. config file
B.    An XML file stored within the Receiver product folder on the user endpoint
C.    A local file-based database replicated among members of a StoreFront server group
D.    The XenApp and XenDesktop Site database configured within the environment
E.    A local file-based database located on a designated StoreFront server within the server group

Answer: C
Explanation:
The Favorites (subscriptions) are stored in a file database on each StoreFront server and are automatically replicated to every StoreFront server in a local Server Group.
http://www.carlstalhood.com/storefront-subscriptions/

QUESTION 30
Scenario: A Citrix Engineer recently implemented a Provisioning Services pilot environment, which still has all the default configurations and uses a standalone SQL Server Express machine to host the Farm database. Management would like the engineer to expand the environmental so that it can be used to support several critical use cases within the organization. The farm database must meet these requirements:

– The solution must ensure that production users are NOT impacted in the event of a database outage.
– The solution must NOT require manual administrator intervention.
– No additional funding is available to accomplish this objective.

Which configuration will meet all the requirements of this scenario?

A.    SQL AlwaysOn Availability Group
B.    Offline database support
C.    SQL Mirroring
D.    SQL Clustering

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/provisioning/7-1/pvs-ha-wrapper/pvs-ha-offline-db-config.html
https://support.citrix.com/article/CTX129173

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QUESTION 1
What two options are available when configuring a virtual flash resource on a virtual machine? (Choose two.)

A.    Block Size
B.    Limit
C.    SCSI Controller
D.    Reservation

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two options are available when migrating a powered off VM and relocating the attached disks? (Choose two.)

A.    Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B.    Raw Device Mapping Physical Compatibility
C.    Same format as source
D.    Raw Device Mapping Virtual Compatibility

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1005241

QUESTION 3
Some of the VMs in a vSphere DRS cluster are not migrated as expected.
Which three factors can affect DRS behavior? (Choose three.)

A.    The currently configured TPS settings for the VMs.
B.    VM Overrides.
C.    DRS Aggression Levels (Migration Threshold).
D.    CPU, Memory, and Network Utilization.
E.    The currently configured Enhanced vMotion Compatibility level for the cluster.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 4
A vSphere Administrator recently upgraded to vSphere .6.5 and wants to assign more than 4 TB of RAM to the virtual machine.
What must happen first?

A.    Make sure that the user account has administrative privileges at a global level.
B.    Upgrade the Virtual Machine compatibility to version 13.
C.    Obtain an ESXi server with an Intel Skylake CPU.
D.    Make sure that there are no snapshots present on the virtual machine.

Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A vSphere Administrator recently introduced a new shared storage solution for the ESXi hosts. Despite good device specifications, this new storage solution is not performing well.
What are two VMware-recommended troubleshooting steps for fixing this? (Choose two.)

A.    Restart the vCenter Server.
B.    Check the VMware Hardware Compatibility List.
C.    Verify that vCenter Server is running the latest patched version.
D.    Verify that the drivers and firmware are at the recommended versions.
E.    Restart the Platform Services Controller.

Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
A VM has the following configuration:

2 vCPU
4 GB RAM
HDD1 10 GB
HDD2 20 GB

A vSphere Administrator creates a snapshot of a powered off VM.
What is the maximum size of all of the snapshots that can be consumed on the datastore?

A.    30 GB
B.    100%of the datastore minus 512 bytes
C.    34 GB
D.    50%of the datastore

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two network failure detection options are available when using a vSphere Standard Switch? (Choose two.)

A.    Fixed with preferred path
B.    Dynamic
C.    Link status with Beacon probing
D.    Link status only

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-65/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.networking.doc%2FGUID-D34B1ADD-B8A7-43CD-AA7E-2832A0F7EE76.html

QUESTION 8
Which three methods can a vSphere Administrator use to automatically synchronize time on an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A.    Log in to the VMware Host Client, navigate to Host > Manage > Time & date and click Edit settings.
B.    Select the host in the vSphere Web Client, navigate to Configure > System > Time Configuration and click the Edit button.
C.    Use the esxcli hardware clock get command in the ESXi Shell.
D.    The vicfg-ntp command.
E.    Configure the VMware Tools time synchronization.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 9
Which two options are requirements to perform a migration between vCenter Server instances? (Choose two.)

A.    The vCenter Server servers must be time-synchronized.
B.    The ESXi hosts must be version 5.5 or later.
C.    The vCenter Servers must be version 6.0 or later.
D.    The vCenter Server must be in the same single Sign-On domain.
E.    The ESXi hosts must have vSphere Standard, Advanced, or Enterprise Plus licensing.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-60/index.jsp#com.vmware.vsphere.vcenterhost.doc/GUID-DAD0C40A-7F66-44CF-B6E8-43A0153ABE81.html

QUESTION 10
An Administrator would like to take advantage of the new Automatic UNMAP feature in VMFS6. All of the existing datastores are connected via iSCSI and formatted with VMFS5.
In order to minimize disruption and maintain some of the existing VMFS5 volumes, which two steps can be taken to leverage the UNMAP feature in VMFS6? (Choose two.)

A.    Use Storage vMotion to migrate your workloads to the new VMFS6 datastore.
B.    Create a new VMFS6 datastore.
C.    Use Storage DRS to put the VMFS5 datastore into maintenance mode.
D.    Perform an inline upgrade on each of your VMFS5 volumes.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
https://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=2147824

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QUESTION 1
An administrator wants to provide users restricted access.
The users should only be able to perform the following tasks:

– Create and consolidate virtual machine snapshots
– Add/Remove virtual disks
– Snapshot Management

Which default role in vCenter Server would meet the administrator’s requirements for the users?

A.    Virtual machine user
B.    Virtual machine power user
C.    Virtual Datacenter administrator
D.    VMware Consolidated Backup user

Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual Machine Power User is a sample role that grants a user access rights only to virtual machines; can alter the virtual hardware or create snapshots of the VM.
Reference: http://blog.pluralsight.com/vmware-access-control-101-roles-and-permissions

QUESTION 2
Which two roles can be modified? (Choose two.)

A.    Administrator
B.    Network Administrator
C.    Datastore Consumer
D.    Read-Only

Answer: BC
Explanation:
It is a common knowledge that you cannot modify Administrator role and grant whatever privileges you like. Same is the case with read-only. This role is created solely for ready only purposes. So you are left with two viable options ¬ Network administrator and Datastore consumer both of which can be modified to add or delete privileges according to your specifications.

QUESTION 3
An administrator with global administrator privileges creates a custom role but fails to assign any privileges to it.
Which two privileges would the custom role have? (Choose two.)

A.    System.View
B.    System.Anonymous
C.    System.User
D.    System.ReadOnly

Answer: AB
Explanation:
When you add a custom role and do not assign any privileges to it, the role is created as a Read Only role with three system-defined privileges: System.Anonymous, System.View, and System.Read.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-93B962A7-93FA-4E96-B68F-AE66D3D6C663.html

QUESTION 4
An administrator wishes to give a user the ability to manage snapshots for virtual machines.
Which privilege does the administrator need to assign to the user?

A.    Datastore.Allocate Space
B.    Virtual machine.Configuration.create snapshot
C.    Virtual machine.Configuration.manage snapshot
D.    Datastore.Browse Datastore

Answer: A
Explanation:
Datastore.Allocate space allows allocating space on a datastore for a virtual machine, snapshot, clone, or virtual disk.
Reference: https://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-51/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.vsphere.security.doc%2FGUID-B2426ACC-D73F-4732-8BBC-DE9B1B2263D9.html

QUESTION 5
An object has inherited permissions from two parent objects.
What is true about the permissions on the object?

A.    The common permissions between the two are applied and the rest are discarded.
B.    The permissions are combined from both parent objects.
C.    No permissions are applied from the parent objects.
D.    The permission is randomly selected from either of the two parent objects.

Answer: B
Explanation:
Most inventory objects inherit permissions from a single parent object in the hierarchy. For example, a datastore inherits permissions from either its parent datastore folder or parent  on a virtual machine, you must set permissions on both the parent folder and the parent host, cluster, or resource pool for that virtual machine.
Reference: http://pubs.vmware.com/vsphere-4-esx-vcenter/index.jsp?topic=/com.vmware.vsphere.dcadmin.doc_41/vsp_dc_admin_guide/managing_users_groups_roles_and_permissions/c_hierarchical_inheritance_of_permissions.html

QUESTION 6
Which feature helps in managing the power consumed by a cluster when virtual machine usage is low?

A.    vMotion
B.    Dynamic Resource Scheduler
C.    Distributed Power Management
D.    Storage vMotion

Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Where does Fault Tolerance store the primary and secondary virtual machine files?

A.    Only local storage
B.    Only shared storage
C.    Both shared and local storage
D.    SSD

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://communities.vmware.com/message/2155776

QUESTION 8
VMware vSphere 6.x provides which three capabilities? (Choose three.)

A.    Data center extension
B.    Manage virtual machines with simple and intuitive tools
C.    Perform live workload migrations
D.    Zero data center clown time
E.    Predictive analytics

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 9
What is the minimum number of virtual NICs that you can configure for a virtual machine?

A.    Four
B.    One
C.    Zero
D.    Two

Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Why does iSCSI use hardware and software initiators?

A.    To initiate connectivity to hardware and software components
B.    To enable storage of data.
C.    To obtain native support within ESXi.
D.    To establish network connectivity.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 31
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates.
What should you do on DC1?

A.    From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B.    From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C.    From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D.    From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.

Answer: B
Explanation:
A. Create Disk Storage Pool
B. PolicyDefinitions folder in SYSVOL
C. Group Policy Management is a console for GPO Mgmt
D. Folder is for logon scripts
PolicyDefinitions folder within the SYSVOL folder hierarchy. By placing the ADMX files in this directory,they are replicated to every DC in the domain; by extension, the ADMX-aware Group Policy ManagementConsole in Windows Vista, Windows 7, Windows Server 2008 and R2 can check this folder as an additionalsource of ADMX files, and will report them accordingly when setting your policies.
By default, the folder is not created. Whether you are a single DC or several thousand, I would stronglyrecommend you create a Central Store and start using it for all your ADMX file storage. It really does work well.
The Central Store To take advantage of the benefits of .admx files, you must create a Central Store in the SYSVOL folder ona domain controller. The Central Store is a file location that is checked by the Group Policy tools. The GroupPolicy tools use any .admx files that are in the Central Store. The files that are in the Central Store are laterreplicated to all domain controllers in the domain. To create a Central Store for .admx and .adml files, create a folder that is named PolicyDefinitions in thefollowing location:
\\FQDN\SYSVOL\FQDN\policies
Note: FQDN is a fully qualified domain name.
http://tigermatt.wordpress.com/tag/policydefinitions/
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/929841/en-us
http://www.virtuallyimpossible.co.uk/how-to-create-a-group-policy-central-store/ http://support.microsoft.com/kb/2741591/en-us

QUESTION 32
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1.
You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1.
Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    An inbound rule for protocol 47
B.    An outbound rule for protocol 47
C.    An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D.    An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E.    An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F.    An outbound rule for TCP port 1701

Answer: AC
Explanation:
To enable VPN tunnels between individual host computers or entire networks that have a firewall between them, you must open the following ports:
PPTP
To allow PPTP tunnel maintenance traffic, open TCP 1723. To allow PPTP tunneled data to pass through router, open Protocol ID 47. http://www.windowsitpro.com/article/pptp/which-ports-do-you-need-to-open-on-a-firewall-to- allow-pptp-andl2tp-over-ipsec-vpn-tunnels–46811
If you use a personal firewall or a broadband router, or if there are routers or firewalls between the VPN client and the VPN server, the following ports and protocol must be enabled for PPTP on all firewalls and routers that are between the VPN client and the VPN server:
Client ports Server port Protocol
1024-65535/TCP 1723/TCP PPTP
Additionally, you must enable IP PROTOCOL 47 (GRE).
http://support.microsoft.com/kb/314076/en-us

QUESTION 33
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The computer accounts for all member servers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers.
You link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Servers OU.
You need to ensure that the domain’s Backup Operators group is a member of the local Backup Operators group on each member server.
The solution must not remove any groups from the local Backup Operators groups.
What should you do?

A.    Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators.
Add Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
B.    Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators.
Add Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
C.    Add a restricted group named Backup Operators.
Add adatum\Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
D.    Add a restricted group named Backup Operators.
Add adatum\Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed.
You need to ensure that only the latest version of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?

A.    An application control policy packaged app rule
B.    A software restriction policy certificate rule
C.    An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D.    An application control policy executable rule

Answer: D

QUESTION 35
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to ensure that the local Administrator account on all computers is renamed to L_Admin. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?

A.    Security Options
B.    User Rights Assignment
C.    Restricted Groups
D.    Preferences

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc747484(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 36
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
You need to create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2.
What should you do first?

361

A.    Delete volume E
B.    Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C.    Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D.    Create a volume on Disk 2

Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Storage Pools use unallocated space
There is no way to create a storage pool with existing data.
Storage pools are only a collection ofdrives that are managed by windows.
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff399688.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh758075.aspx

QUESTION 37
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1.
You need to ensure that you can create a 3-TB volume on Disk 5.
What should you do?

A.    Create a storage pool.
B.    Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C.    Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D.    Convert the disk to a GPT disk.

Answer: D
Explanation:
MBR max is 2TB, the disk must be GPT
For any hard drive over 2TB, we need to use GPT partition. If you have a disk larger than 2TB size, the rest ofthe disk space will not be used unless you convert it to GPT. An existing MBR partition can’t be converted to GPT unless it is completely empty; you must either deleteeverything and convert or create the partition as GPT. It is not possible to boot to a GPT partition, impossible to convert MBR to GPT without data loss.
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/hardware/gg463525.aspx

QUESTION 38
You have a server named Server1 that has a Server Core installation of Windows Server 2008 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the File Server server role installed.
You need to upgrade Server1 to Windows Server 2012 R2 with the graphical user interface (GUI). The solution must meet the following requirements:

– Preserve the server roles and their configurations.
– Minimize Administrative effort.

What should you do?

A.    On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server
with a GUI.
B.    Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature.
C.    Start Server1 from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server with a GUI.
D.    On Server1, run setup.exe from the Windows Server 2012 R2 installation media and select Server
Core Installation.
When the installation is complete, add the Server Graphical Shell feature

Answer: D
Explanation:
A. Server is on 2008 R2 core, must install 2012 R2 core and then GUI
B. Not least effort
C. Not least effort
D. Upgrade to 2012 R2 and install GUI shell
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj574204.aspx
Upgrades that switch from a Server Core installation to the Server with a GUI mode of Windows Server 2012 R2 in one step (and vice versa) are not supported. However, after upgrade is complete, Windows Server 2012 R2 allows you to switch freely between Server Core and Server with a GUI modes. For more information about these installation options, how to convert between them, and how to use the new Minimal Server Interface and Features on Demand, see
http://technet.microsoft.com/library/hh831786.

QUESTION 39
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on Server2 remotely from Server1.
Which tool should you use?

A.    The dsadd.exe command
B.    The Server Manager console
C.    The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D.    The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet

Answer: B

QUESTION 40
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1.
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort.
What should you do?

A.    Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B.    From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C.    From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE
D.    From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that hosts the primary DNS zone for contoso.com.
All servers dynamically register their host names.
You install the new Web servers that host identical copies of your company’s intranet website. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

211

You need to use DNS records to load balance name resolution queries for intranet.contoso.com between the two Web servers.
What is the minimum number of DNS records that you should create manually?

A.    1
B.    3
C.    4
D.    6

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Remote Access server role installed.
You need to configure the ports on Server1 to ensure that client computers can establish VPN connections to Server1. The solution must NOT require the use of certificates or pre-shared keys.
What should you modify?
To answer, select the appropriate object in the answer area.

221

Answer:

222

Explanation:
The four types of tunneling protocols used with a VPN/RAS server running on Windows Server 2012 include:
Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP):
A VPN protocol based on the legacy Point-to-Point protocol used with modems.
The PPTP specification does not describeencryption or authentication features and relies on the Point-to-Point Protocol being tunneled to implement security functionality.
Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP): Used with IPsec to provide security.
L2TP supports either computer certificates or a preshared key as the authentication method for IPsec. IKEv2: IKE is short for Internet Key Exchange, which is a tunneling protocol that uses IPsec Tunnel Mode protocol. The message is encrypted with one of the following protocols by using encryption keys that are generated from the IKEv2 negotiation process.
Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP): Introduced with Windows Server 2008, which uses the HTTPS protocol over TCP port 443 to pass traffic through firewalls
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Point-to-Point_Tunneling_Protocol

QUESTION 23
Hotspot Question
You have a server named Servers that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Servers has the Windows Deployment Services server role installed.
Server5 contains several custom images of Windows 8.
You need to ensure that when 32-bit client computers start by using PXE, the computers automatically install an image named Image 1.
What should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate tab in the answer area.

231

Answer:

232

QUESTION 24
You have a cluster named Cluster1 that contains two nodes. Both nodes run Windows Server 2012 R2. Cluster1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You configure a custom service on VM1 named Service1.
You need to ensure that VM1 will be moved to a different node if Service1 fails.
Which cmdlet should you run on Cluster1?

A.    Add-ClusterVmMonitoredItem
B.    Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
C.    Set-ClusterResourceDependency
D.    Enable VmResourceMetering

Answer: A
Explanation:
The Add-ClusterVMMonitoredItem cmdlet configures monitoring for a service or an Event
Tracing for Windows (ETW) event so that it is monitored on a virtual machine. If the service fails or the event occurs, then the system responds by taking an action based on the failover configuration for the virtual machine resource. For example, the configuration might specify that the virtual machine be restarted.

QUESTION 25
Your company has a main office and a branch office.
The main office contains a server that hosts a Distributed File System (DFS) replicated folder.
You plan to implement a new DFS server in the branch office.
You need to recommend a solution that minimizes the amount of network bandwidth used to perform the initial synchronization of the folder to the branch office.
You recommend using the Export-DfsrClone and Import-DfsrClonecmdlets.
Which additional command or cmdlet should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Robocopy.exe
B.    Synchost.exe
C.    Export-BcCachePackage
D.    Sync-DfsReplicationGroup

Answer: A
Explanation:
By preseeding files before you set up DFS Replication, add a new replication partner, or replace a server, you can speed up initial synchronization and enable cloning of the DFS Replication database in Windows Server 2012 R2. The Robocopy method is one of several preseeding methods

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have several Windows PowerShell scripts that execute when users log on to their client computer.
You need to ensure that all of the scripts execute completely before the users can access their desktop.
Which setting should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate setting in the answer area.

261

Answer:

262

Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc738773(v=ws.10).aspx
Run logon scripts synchronously
Directs the system to wait for logon scripts to finish running before it starts the Windows Explorer interface program and creates the desktop.
If you enable this policy, Windows Explorer does not start until the logon scripts have finished running. This setting assures that logon script processing is complete before the user starts working, but it can delay the appearance of the desktop.
If you disable this policy or do not configure it, the logon scripts and Windows Explorer are not synchronized and can run simultaneously.

QUESTION 27
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
An organizational unit (OU) named OU1 contains 200 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1.
You make a change to GPO1.
You need to force all of the computers in OU1 to refresh their Group Policy settings immediately. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
Which tool should you use?

A.    Server Manager
B.    Active Directory Users and Computers
C.    The Gpupdate command
D.    Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. Domain controllers run either Windows Server 2008, Windows Server 2008 R2, or Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a Password Settings object (PSOs) named PSO1.
You need to view the settings of PSO1.
Which tool should you use?

A.    Group Policy Management
B.    Server Manager
C.    Get-ADAccountResultantPasswordReplicationPolicy
D.    Active Directory Administrative Center

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc770848(v=ws.10).aspx
Incorrect:
* Get-ADFineGrainedPasswordPolicy
Gets one or more Active Directory fine grained password policies.
* To store fine-grained password policies, Windows Server 2008 includes two new object classes in the Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) schema:
Password Settings Container
Password Settings
The Password Settings Container (PSC) object class is created by default under the System container in the domain. It stores the Password Settings objects (PSOs) for that domain.

QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains more than 100 Group Policy objects (GPOs). Currently, there are no enforced GPOs.
You need to prevent all of the GPOs at the site level and at the domain level from being applied to users and computers in an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort.
What should you use?

A.    dcgpofix
B.    Get-GPOReport
C.    Gpfixup
D.    Gpresult
E.    Gptedit.msc
F.    Import-GPO
G.    Import-GPO
H.    Restore-GPO
I.    Set-GPInheritance
J.    Set-GPLink
K.    Set-GPPermission
L.    Gpupdate
M.    Add-ADGroupMember

Answer: I
Explanation:
The cmdlet Set-GPInheritance enable or disable inheritance for a given organizational unit and thus prevents GPOs that are linked to a higher level, are applied to the objects of being surrounded OU.
The following call disables inheritance parent GPOs for OU CBTest the root of the domain:
Set-GPinheritance -target “ou = contosoTest, dc = contoso, dc = com” -IsBlocked Yes
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee461032.aspx
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc757050.aspx

QUESTION 30
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains more than 100 Group Policy objects (GPOs). Currently, there are no enforced GPOs.
You have two GPOs linked to an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
You need to change the precedence order of the GPOs.
What should you use?

A.    Dcgpofix
B.    Get-GPOReport
C.    Gpfixup
D.    Gpresult
E.    Gptedit.msc
F.    Import-GPO
G.    Restore-GPO
H.    Set-GPInheritance
I.    Set-GPLink
J.    Set-GPPermission
K.    Gpupdate
L.    Add-ADGroupMember

Answer: I
Explanation:
The Set-GPLink cmdlet sets the properties of a GPO link.
You can set the following properties:
— Enabled. If the GPO link is enabled, the settings of the GPO are applied when Group Policy is processed for the site, domain or OU.
— Enforced. If the GPO link is enforced, it cannot be blocked at a lower-level (in the Group Policy processing hierarchy) container.
— Order. The order specifies the precedence that the settings of the GPO take over conflicting settings in other GPOs that are linked (and enabled) to the same site, domain, or OU. http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee461022.aspx

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QUESTION 21
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Both servers have the Hyper-V server role installed. The network contains an enterprise certification authority (CA). All servers are enrolled automatically for a certificate-based on the Computer certificate template. On Server1, you have a virtual machine named VM1.
VM1 is replicated to Server2.
You need to encrypt the replication of VM1.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)

A.    On Server1, modify the settings of VM1.
B.    On Server2, modify the settings of VM1.
C.    On Server2, modify the Hyper-V Settings.
D.    On Server1, modify the Hyper-V Settings.
E.    On Server1, modify the settings of the virtual switch to which VM1 is connected.
F.    On Server2, modify the settings of the virtual switch to which VM1 is connected.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
Answer is A and C, not A and F. Virtual Switch has nothing to do with this scenario based many sites I’ve visited even TechNet. And added a couple examples with Enterprise CA as well.
C. – Is Server 2, modify settings of Hyper-V=>Replica Server. then all the Encryption Reqs.
TCP-443/SSL.

QUESTION 22
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a file server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You create a user account named User1 in the domain.
You need to ensure that User1 can use Windows Server Backup to back up Server1.
The solution must minimize the number of administrative rights assigned to User1.
What should you do?

A.    Add User1 to the Backup Operators group.
B.    Add User1 to the Power Users group.
C.    Assign User1 the Backup files and directories user right and the Restore files and directories user right.
D.    Assign User1 the Backup files and directories user right.

Answer: A
Explanation:
You must be a member of the Administrators group or Backup Operators group to use Windows Server Backup.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc732091.aspx

QUESTION 23
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and is used for testing.
A developer at your company creates and installs an unsigned kernel-mode driver on Server1. The developer reports that Server1 will no longer start.
You need to ensure that the developer can test the new driver.
The solution must minimize the amount of data loss.
Which Advanced Boot Option should you select?

A.    Disable Driver Signature Enforcement
B.    Disable automatic restart on system failure
C.    Last Know Good Configuration (advanced)
D.    Repair Your Computer

Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Hotspot Question
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a Dynamic Access Control policy named Policy1.
You create a new Central Access Rule named Rule1.
You need to add Rule1 to Policy1.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

241

Answer:

242

Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/hh846167.aspx

QUESTION 25
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2.
All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover cluster named Cluster1.
You add two additional nodes in Cluster1.
You have a folder named Folder1 on Server1 that hosts application data.
Folder1 is a folder target in a Distributed File System (DFS) namespace.
You need to provide highly available access to Folder1.
The solution must support DFS Replication to Folder1.
What should you configure?

A.    Affinity-None
B.    Affinity-Single
C.    The cluster quorum settings
D.    The failover settings
E.    A file server for general use
F.    The Handling priority
G.    The host priority
H.    Live migration
I.    The possible owner
J.    The preferred owner
K.    Quick migration
L.    The Scale-Out File Server

Answer: E

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two member servers named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and Server2 have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed.
The servers are configured as nodes in an NLB cluster named Cluster1.
Port rules are configured for all clustered applications.
You need to ensure that Server2 handles all client requests to the cluster that are NOT covered by a port rule.
What should you configure?

A.    Affinity-None
B.    Affinity-Single
C.    The cluster quorum settings
D.    The failover settings
E.    A file server for general use
F.    The Handling priority
G.    The host priority
H.    Live migration
I.    The possible owner
J.    The preferred owner
K.    Quick migration
L.    The Scale-Out File Server

Answer: G

QUESTION 27
Hotspot Question
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2.
Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster.
The NLB cluster contains an application named App1 that is accessed by using the name
appl.contoso.com.
The NLB cluster has the port rules configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)

271

To answer, complete each statement according to the information presented in the exhibit.
Each correct selection is worth one point.

272

Answer:

273

QUESTION 28
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two domains named contoso.com and fabrikam.com. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2003.
You have a domain outside the forest named adatum.com.
You need to configure an access solution to meet the following requirements:

– Users in adatum.com must be able to access resources in contoso.com.
– Users in adatum.com must be prevented from accessing resources in fabrikam.com.
– Users in both contoso.com and fabrikam.com must be prevented from accessing resources in adatum.com.

What should you create?

A.    a one-way realm trust from contoso.com to adatum.com
B.    a one-way realm trust from adatum.com to contoso.com
C.    a one-way external trust from contoso.com to adatum.com
D.    a one-way external trust from adatum.com to contoso.com

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains two domain controllers.
DC1 hosts an Active Directory- integrated zone for contoso.com.
You add the DNS Server server role to DC2.
You discover that the contoso.com DNS zone fails to replicate to DC2.
You verify that the domain, schema, and configuration naming contexts replicate from DC1 to DC2.
You need to ensure that DC2 replicates the contoso.com zone by using Active Directory replication.
Which tool should you use?

A.    Dnscmd
B.    Dnslint
C.    Repadmin
D.    Ntdsutil
E.    DNS Manager
F.    Active Directory Sites and Services
G.    Active Directory Domains and Trusts
H.    Active Directory Users and Computers

Answer: F
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc739941(v=ws.10).aspx
If you see question about AD Replication, First preference is AD sites and services, then Repadmin and then DNSLINT.

QUESTION 30
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
The forest contains four domains. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Each domain has a user named User1.
You have a file server named Server1 that is used to synchronize user folders by using the
Work Folders role service.
Server1 has a work folder named Sync1.
You need to ensure that each user has a separate folder in Sync1.
What should you do?

A.    From Windows Explorer, modify the Sharing properties of Sync1.
B.    Run the Set-SyncServerSetting cmdlet.
C.    From File and Storage Services in Server Manager, modify the properties of Sync1.
D.    Run the Set-SyncShare cmdlet.

Answer: D
Explanation:
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-US/library/dn296649.aspx
PS C:\> Set-SyncShare Share01 -User “ContosoGroup”

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QUESTION 21
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso. com.
The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?

A.    Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMember cmdlet.
B.    Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C.    Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembership cmdlet.
D.    Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.

Answer: D

QUESTION 22
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers.
You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1.
The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?

A.    Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet.
Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B.    Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet.
Activate the scopes.
C.    Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the
Invoke-DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet.
Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D.    Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the
Invoke-DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet.
Activate the scopes.

Answer: B
Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server 2012.

Case Study 3 – Litware, Inc (Question 23 – Question 34)
Overview
Litware, Inc. is a manufacturing company. The company has a main office and two branch offices. The main office is located in Seattle. The branch offices are located in Los Angeles and Boston.

Existing Environment
Active Directory
The network contains an Active Directory forest named litwareinc.com. The forest contains a child domain for each office. The child domains are named boston.litwareinc.com and la.litwareinc.com. An Active Directory site exists for each office. In each domain, all of the client computer accounts reside in an organizational unit (OU) named AllComputers and all of the user accounts reside in an OU named AllUsers. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2 and are configured as DNS servers. The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.

Network Infrastructure
The main office has the following servers:

– Five physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
– Three virtual file servers that run Windows Server 2008 R2
– One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
– Ten physical application servers that run Windows Server 2012
– One virtual IP Address Management (IPAM) server that runs Windows Server 2012
– One virtual Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
– One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2

Each branch office has following servers:

– One virtual file server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
– Two physical Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012
– One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2
– One physical domain controller and two virtual domain controllers that run Windows Server 2008 R2

All of the offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet.
The offices connect to each other by using T1 leased lines.
The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.

Requirements
Planned Changes
The company plans to implement the following changes:

– Implement the Active Directory Recycle Bin.
– Implement Network Access Protection (NAP).
– Implement Folder Redirection in the Boston office only.
– Deploy an application named App1 to all of the users in the Boston office only.
– Migrate to IPv6 addressing on all of the servers in the Los Angeles office. Some application servers in the Los Angeles office will have only IPv6 addresses.

Technical Requirements
The company identifies the following technical requirements:

– Minimize the amount of administrative effort whenever possible.
– Ensure that NAP with IPSec enforcement can be configured.
– Rename boston.litwareinc.com domain to bos.htwareinc.com.
– Migrate the DHCP servers from the physical servers to a virtual server that runs Windows Server 2012.
– Ensure that the members of the Operators groups in all three domains can manage the IPAM server from their client computer.

VPN Requirements
You plan to implement a third-party VPN server in each office. The VPN servers will be configured as RADIUS clients. A server that runs Windows Server 2012 will perform RADIUS authentication for all of the VPN connections.

Visualization Requirements
The company identifies the following virtualization requirements:

– Virtualize the application servers.
– Ensure that the additional domain controllers for the branch offices can be deployed by using domain controller cloning.
– Automatically distribute the new virtual machines to Hyper-V hosts based on the current resource usage of the Hyper-V hosts.

Server Deployment Requirements
The company identifies the following requirements for the deployment of new servers on the network:

– Deploy the new servers over the network.
– Ensure that all of the server deployments are done by using multicast.

Security Requirements
A new branch office will open in Chicago. The new branch office will have a single read-only domain controller (RODC). Confidential attributes must not be replicated to the Chicago office.

QUESTION 23
You need to recommend a server deployment strategy for the main office that meets the server deployment requirements.
What should you recommend installing in the main office?

A.    Windows Deployment Services (WDS)
B.    The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK)
C.    The Express Deployment Tool (EDT)
D.    The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)

Answer: A
Explanation:
WDS is a server role that enables you to remotely deploy Windows operating systems. You can use it to set up new computers by using a network-based installation. This means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD, USB drive, or DVD.

QUESTION 24
You need to implement the technical requirements for the boston.litwareinc.com domain.
Which tools should you use?

A.    Gpfixup and Gpupdate
B.    Rendom and Gpfixup
C.    Gpupdate and Dcgpofix
D.    Adprep and Rendom

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
You need to recommend a server virtualization strategy that meets the technical requirements and the virtualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Windows Server Backup
B.    The Microsoft Virtual Machine Converter
C.    Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
D.    Disk2vhd

Answer: C

QUESTION 26
You need to recommend a remote access solution that meets the VPN requirements.
Which role service should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Routing
B.    Network Policy Server
C.    DirectAccess and VPN (RAS)
D.    Host Credential Authorization Protocol

Answer: B

QUESTION 27
You need to recommend changes to the Active Directory site topology to support on the company’s planned changes.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    A new site link bridge
B.    A new subnet
C.    A new site link
D.    A new site

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
You need to recommend an IPAM management solution for the Operators groups.
The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    Run the Invoke IpamGpoProvisioning cmdlet in all three domains.
Add the computers used by the members of the Operators group to the IPAM server.
B.    Modify the membership of the IPAM Administrators group and the
WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_group on the IPAM server.
C.    Run the Set-IpamConfiguration cmdlet on the IPAM server.
Run the Invoke-IpamGpoProvisioning cmdlet in all three domains.
D.    Run the Set-IpamConfiguration cmdlet and modify the membership of the
WinRMRemoteWMIUsers_group on the IPAM server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 29
You need to recommend a migration strategy for the DHCP servers.
The strategy must meet the technical requirements.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you recommend running on the physical DHCP servers?

A.    Receive-SmigServerData
B.    Import-SmigServerSetting
C.    Export-SmigServerSetting
D.    Send-SmigServerData

Answer: C
Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ Main office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 / each branch office: One physical DHCP server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 / The IPAM server in the main office gathers data from the DNS servers and the DHCP servers in all of the offices.
* Example:
Command Prompt: C:\PS>
Export-SmigServerSetting -Feature “DHCP” -User All -Group -Path “c:\temp\store” – Verbose
This sample command exports the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) Server and all other Windows features that are required by DHCP Server.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd379483%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

QUESTION 30
You need to recommend a solution that meets the security requirements.
Which schema attribute properties should you recommend modifying?

A.    isCriticalSystemObject
B.    searchFlags
C.    schemaFlagsEx
D.    isIndexed

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed and are part of a host group named Group1 in Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM).
Server1 and Server2 have identical hardware, software, and settings.
You configure VMM to migrate virtual machines if the CPU utilization on a host exceeds 65 percent.
The current load on the servers is shown following table.
You start a new virtual machine on Server2 named VM8.
VM8 has a CPU utilization of 20 percent.
You discover that none of the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.
You need to ensure that the virtual machines hosted on Server2 are migrated to Server1.
What should you modify from the Dynamic Optimization configuration?

211

A.    The Host Reserve threshold
B.    The Aggressiveness level
C.    The Dynamic Optimization threshold
D.    The Power Optimization threshold

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Your network contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) server named Server1.
You use Server1 to manage 20 Hyper-V hosts.
The network also contains five Citrix XenServer visualization hosts.
You need to recommend which installation is required to manage the XenServer servers from Server1.
What should you recommend installing?

A.    The Citrix XenServer-Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on Server1
B.    Citrix Essentials for Hyper-V on Server1
C.    Citrix Essentials for Hyper-V on the Citrix XenServer hosts
D.    The Citrix XenServer-Microsoft System Center Integration Pack on the Citrix XenServer
hosts

Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Your network contains two data centers named DataCenter1 and DataCenter2.
The two data centers are connected by using a low-latency high-speed WAN link.
Each data center contains multiple Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2012.
All servers connect to a Storage Area Network (SAN) in their local data center.
You plan to implement 20 virtual machines that will be hosted on the Hyper-V hosts.
You need to recommend a hosting solution for the virtual machines.
The solution must meet the following requirements:

– Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single Hyper-V host fails.
– Virtual machines must be available automatically on the network if a single data center fails.

What should you recommend?

A.    One failover cluster and one Distributed File System (DFS) Replication group in each data
center
B.    One failover cluster in DataCenter1 and Hyper-V replicas to DataCenter2
C.    One failover cluster that spans both data centers and SAN replication between the data
centers
D.    One failover cluster in DataCenter2 and one DFS Replication group in DataCenter1

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
You have a Hyper-V host named Hyper1 that has Windows Server 2012 Installed.
Hyper1 hosts 20 virtual machines.
Hyper1 has one physical network adapter.
You need to implement a networking solution that evenly distributes the available bandwidth on Hyper1 to all of the virtual machines.
What should you modify?

A.    The Quality of Service (QoS) Packet Scheduler settings of the physical network adapter
B.    The settings of the network adapter
C.    The settings of the virtual switch
D.    The settings of the legacy network adapter

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.techrepublic.com/blog/data-center/set-bandwidth-limits-for-hyper-v-vms-with-windows-server-2012/

QUESTION 25
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a Microsoft System center 2012 infrastructure.
You deploy a second System Center 2012 infrastructure in a test environment.
You create a service template named Template1 in both System Center 2012 infrastructures.
For self-service users, you create a service offering for Template1.
The users create 20 instances of Template1.
You modify Template1 in the test environment.
You export the service template to a file named Templatel.xml.
You need to ensure that the changes to Template1 can be applied to the existing instances in the production environment.
What should you do when you import the template?

A.    Create a new service template.
B.    Overwrite the current service template.
C.    Change the release number of the service template.
D.    Change the name of the service template.

Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The corporate security policy states that when new user accounts, computer accounts, and contacts are added to an organizational unit (OU) named Secure, the addition must be audited.
You need to recommend an auditing solution to meet the security policy.
What should you include in the recommendation? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)

A.    From the Default Domain Controllers Policy, enable the Audit directory services setting.
B.    Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that is linked to the Secure OU, and then modify the Audit directory services setting.
C.    From the Secure OU, modify the Auditing settings.
D.    From the Default Domain Controllers Policy, enable the Audit object access setting.
E.    From the Secure OU, modify the Permissions settings.
F.    Create a new Group Policy object (GPO) that is linked to the Secure OU, and then modify the Audit object access setting.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 27
You plan to implement a virtualization solution to host 10 virtual machines.
All of the virtual machines will be hosted on servers that run Windows Server 2012.
You need to identify which servers must be deployed for the planned virtualization solution.
The solution must meet the following requirements:

– Minimize the number of servers.
– Ensure that live migration can be used between the hosts.

Which servers should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate servers in the answer area.

271

Answer:

272

Explanation:
Just two server with Hyper-V installed is enough to perform a Live Migration. (Minimize the number of servers)

QUESTION 28
Your company has 10,000 users located in 25 different sites.
All servers run Windows Server 2012.
All client computers run either Windows 7 or Windows 8.
You need to recommend a solution to provide self-service password reset for all of the users. What should you include in the recommendation?

A.    the Microsoft System Center 2012 Service Manager Self-Service Portal and Microsoft
System Center 2012 Operation Manager management packs
B.    Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager management packs and Microsoft
System Center 2012 Configuration Manager collections
C.    Microsoft System Center 2012 App Controller and Microsoft System Center 2012
Orchestrator runbooks
D.    the Microsoft System Center 2012 Service Manager Self-Service Portal and Microsoft
System Center 2012 Orchestrator runbooks

Answer: D

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